1. Which two are supply sources for Supplier and Production inventory replenishment? (Choose two.)
A. Discrete job
B. Intransit order
C. External sales order
D. Replenishment move order
E. Internal purchase requisition
F. External purchase requisition
Answer: AF
2. What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the Cycle
Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C
3. Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is driven below
zero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from driving inventory levels
below zero.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =
No.
B. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =
Yes.
C. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =
No.
D. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =
Yes.
Answer: B
4. You define a UOM Class for VolumE.
Which grouping represents the Volume class?
A. Liter, gallon, milliliter, pint
B. Kilometer, meter, mile, yard
C. Liter, milliliter, kilometer, meter
D. Liter, gallon, milliliter, centimeter
E. Kilometer, meter, cubic yard, cubic meter
F. Kilometer, meter, centimeter, cubic centimeter
Answer: A
5. XYZ is a metal fabrication company. It wants to classify all metals and plastics into two major groups.
There are many subgroups in metals and plastics. All the subgroups are linked to their major group.
This group classification is extensively used in all the reports in the organization.
Which Oracle functionality can meet the above requirement?
A. Catalogs
B. Categories
C. Catalog and Categories
D. Category Set and Categories
E. Group key flexfield enabled in the reports
F. Group descriptive flexfield enabled in the reports
Answer: D
6. ABC company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1. Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would
allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C
7. You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planninG. To
enable that functionality, you would need to define the ____.
A. subinventory supply source type at the pull level
B. Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zero
C. Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zero
D. subinventory supply source type at the subinventory or item level
Answer: D
8. Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose threE. )
A. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproveD.
B. Replenishment and pick wave move orders are preapproveD.
C. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproved and require inspection.
D. If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approveD.
E. If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout Period to 0
and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.
Answer: BDE
9. An item has its Lot Control attribute set to Full Control.
The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material status
control. This status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.
The subinventory where the item’s lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.
How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?
A. The transaction will be accepteD.
B. An error message will be generateD.
C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same subinventory.
D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the user.
Answer: A
10. Select three statements that are true about the receiving process. (Choose threE. )
A. You can correct receiving transaction errors.
B. You can record returns to suppliers and customers.
C. You can record receipt of unordered items, research receipt, and match the delivery to a purchase order.
D. You can use express receipt to distribute a given quantity of an item from a single supplier across multiple
shipments and distributions.
E. You can define receiving tolerances and rules at the organization, supplier, item and order level, with the
highest level overriding the next levels (highest level being the organization).
Answer: ABC
11. Identify the correct sequence of steps in the purchase order period close business flow.
A. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing perioD.
> 4. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 5. Run the Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual journal entry
for write-offs.
B. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing perioD.
> 4. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 5. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 6. Create a
manual journal entry for write-offs. > 7. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory
accounting perioD.
C. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Run the Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 3. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 4. Create a manual journal entry
for write-offs. > 5. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 6. Process period-end accruals. > 7. Close the
purchasing perioD.
D. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Review the
Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 3. Process period-end accruals. > 4. Close the purchasing perioD. > 5. Run the
Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual
journal entry for write-offs.
Answer: A
12. Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose threE. )
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are
separatE.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the
balance sheet.
Answer: BCE
13. While implementing a procurement solution for BAC Corp., you noted the following business requirements:
a) Do not require purchase order approval if the unit price is increased or decreased by less than 15 percent.
b) Add comments in the Approve Purchase Order Reminder notification.
c) Change the number of days for the Approve Requisition Reminder notification.
Which two workflows need to be modified to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. PO Change Order Workflow
B. PO Requisition Approval Workflow
C. Purchase Order Approval Workflow
D. Create Purchase Order or Releases Workflow
E. PO Send Notifications for Purchasing Documents Workflow
Answer: BD
14. Which are the three mandatory fields when defining a supplier bank header? (Choose threE. )
A. Bank
B. Bank branch
C. Bank contact
D. Bank account number
E. Bank operating account
Answer: ABD
15. Your client wants the ability to perform the following tasks:
1)Allow requestors to self-approve purchasing requisitions if their approval levels are appropriatE.
2)Allow an approver to modify a purchasing requisition if necessary.
3)Allow requestors to forward their purchasing requisitions to different people if necessary.
4)Withdraw the ability to change the default “Forward From” on the purchasing requisition when approving the
samE.
5)Allow the purchasing requisition to follow the entire approval hierarchy until it reaches a person who can
approve the document regardless of authority.
6)Allow everyone to view each others’ purchasing requisitions.
Which seven actions would satisfy the client’s requirements? (Choose seven.)
A. Set the Access Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Full.
B. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PubliC.
C. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PrivatE.
D. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Direct.
E. Select the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition Document TypE.
F. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Hierarchy.
G. Deselect the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
H. Select the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
I. Deselect the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
J. Select the Owner Can Forward-To check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
K. Deselect the Can Change the Forward-From box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
Answer: ABEFHJK
16. When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following
message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number].
Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the Default Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) List of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
Answer: C
17. Identify four mandatory implementation actions for approved supplier lists and sourcing rules. (Choose four.)
A. Register suppliers.
B. Define buyer security.
C. Set the enterprise namE.
D. Define system profile options.
E. Assign Sourcing responsibilities.
F. Define purchasing Document Styles.
G. Set up attribute groups and requirements sections.
Answer: ACDE
18. During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a supplier to be
inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.
When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D
19. Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is checkeD.
An internal requisition has been created and approveD.
What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E
20. Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. The
buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from nonlocal
sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH
21. Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Answer: BE
22. Which data is received by Oracle Bill of Materials from Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply only
B. item information only
C. on-hand quantity only
D. item information and units of measure
E. units of measure and on-hand quantity
Answer: D
23. Min-max planning can be used _____.
A. only at the subinventory level
B. in place of MRP/MPS planning
C. in Exponential Smoothing Forecast calculations
D. in Economic Order Quantity(EOQ) calculations
E. in Material Requirement Planning/Master Production Schedule (MRP/MPS) calculations
Answer: B
24. Which three statements regarding inventory forecasting are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Focus forecasting can only be generated from historical datA.
B. Focus forecasting is typically used to produce single period forecasts.
C. Statistical forecasting can be generated from either historical data or master schedule entries.
D. Statistical forecasting enables you to apply exponentially weighted trend and seasonality factors to predict
demanD.
E. Statistical forecasting enables you to simulate various methods of calculating demand so that you can select the
best forecasting model.
Answer: ABD
25. What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?
A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.
B. (alpha) is always greater than onE.
C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.
D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.
E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous perioD.
Answer: D
26. You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to meet the
client’s needs.
You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential Smoothing
after one year.
Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to re-evaluate
the forecasting methoD.
What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?
A. Focus Forecasting
B. Exponential Smoothing
C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients
Answer: C
27. ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is on-hand
inventory for 200 different motors.
For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max can automatically create _____.
A. an expense account
B. an encumbrance account
C. an invoice price variance account
D. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual account
E. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table
Answer: E
28. The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They currently use
min-max planninG. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed on the items the client
wants to plan?
A. Safety Stock Quantity and Forecast
B. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost
C. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost, and
Order Cost
D. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost,
Order Cost, and Maximum Order Quantity
E. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost,
Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity
Answer: C
29. Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific subinventories. You caution him
not to include too many customer orders when he runs the report.
What option do you suggest that he include?
A. Supply Cutoff Date
B. Demand Cutoff Date
C. Supply and Demand Cutoff Dates
D. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)
Answer: B
30. ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the
Min-Max Planning Report is deployeD.
What will be the result?
A. Requisitions will be preapproveD.
B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf lifE.
C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fencE.
E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item’s Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
Answer: A
31. What is the significance of the Shrinkage Rate item attribute?
A. The expected reduction in demand within the planning fence
B. The average loss of material during manufacturing or storage
C. The expected decrease in the rate of production of units during manufacturing
D. The expected percentage (%) loss of quality of an item during the manufacturing process or storage
Answer: B
32. Which three are Inventory replenishment methods? (Choose threE. )
A. Kanban
B. Safety Stock
C. Min-max planning
D. Replenishment Counting
E. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
F. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
Answer: ACD
33. Which three statements are true regarding Inventory replenishment methods? (Choose threE. )
A. Min-max planning considers order cost.
B. Min-max planning considers carrying cost.
C. Reorder point planning considers order cost.
D. Reorder point planning considers replenishment lead timE.
E. Min-max planning can be performed at the subinventory level.
F. When an item is defined, both reorder point planning and min-max planning can be specified to place limits on
the calculated reorder point.
Answer: CDE
34. The Available to Promise (ATP) algorithm uses three time fences.
They are Past Due Supply, Past Due Demand, and _____.
A. Finite Supply Time
B. Infinite Supply Time
C. Planning Horizon Time
D. User-Defined Lead Time
E. Accumulative Lead Time
Answer: B
35. Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose threE. )
A. The ABC class is an item attributE.
B. There can be only three classes-A, B, and C.
C. An ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.
D. ABC classes can be used to group items for planning purposes.
E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your items belonG.
Answer: CDE
36. How many distinct ABC Compile Names can exist at a given time in an inventory organization?
A. an unlimited number of names
B. only one for each subinventory
C. only one per inventory organization
D. one for each subinventory and one for each inventory organization
Answer: A
37. What is the prerequisite for entering unscheduled entries in a cycle count?
A. Run a manual schedule request to generate counts.
B. Generate cycle count requests before entering counts.
C. Run an automatic schedule request to generate counts.
D. Run the count generation program for unscheduled entries.
E. Set the Unscheduled Entries flag to Yes in the cycle count header.
Answer: E
38. Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose threE. )
A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.
B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.
C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a subinventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked subinventory.
D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expense) subinventories for which quantities are trackeD.
E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels.
F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle
count header level.
Answer: ADF
39. The client runs cycle counts to keep the inventory accurate and eliminate the need for a complete physical
inventory. The client has encountered a problem: they are unable to count items that are not in stocK.
They want the items to appear on a cycle count even if they are not in stocK. These are high dollar items and
important to the inventory and cycle count accuracy.
Which three steps should be performed? (Choose threE. )
A. Ensure that the Count Zero Quantities check box is selecteD.
B. Set up a cycle count to count only the zero-quantity items.
C. Increase the number of counts per year for all A Class Items.
D. Increase the number of counts per year for all B Class Items.
E. Create a subinventory where only zero-quantity parts are storeD.
F. Set up the cycle count item scope at the organization level and item valuation at the subinventory level.
G. Set up the cycle count item scope at the organization level and item valuation at the organization level.
Answer: ACG
40. Identify five valid steps in defining a Physical Inventory. (Choose fivE. )
A. Void unused or lost tags.
B. Reconcile Cost of Goods updates.
C. Allow only WIP and purchasing transactions.
D. Take a snapshot of system on-hand quantities.
E. Approve or reject Physical Inventory adjustments based on approval tolerances.
F. Automatically post adjustments to inventory balances and general ledger accounts.
G. Define a Physical Inventory for your whole warehouse or subinventories within your warehousE.
H. Run the Physical Inventory variance report for the controller to credit or debit an entry on the cost of goods
solD.
Answer: ADEFG
41. What is the purpose of the Physical Inventory Snapshot?
A. to permit the entry of inventory transactions
B. to prevent the entry of inventory transactions
C. to provide the opening balance value for the fiscal perioD.
D. to provide the baseline for comparison of physical count quantities against system on-hand quantities.
Answer: D
42. Which two statements apply to a Physical Inventory Tag as defined by Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. Physical Inventory Tags cannot be bar codeD.
B. It can contain a count for a group of a given item.
C. It is produced and printed by the Generate Physical Inventory Tags function.
D. It is unique for every stock locator/item/lot number/serial number combination.
E. It is used to indicate to the warehouse staff that a count has been recorded for that location, so that a duplicate
count is not performeD.
Answer: BD
43. Cycle count variance approval tolerances have been defined for a cycle count. The Approval Required option
in the cycle count has been set to: If out of tolerancE.
When an item count exceeds the approval tolerance specified, Inventory _____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment after approval
Answer: B
44. ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances and the Approval Required option is set to: If out
of tolerancE.
When the actual count falls within tolerance, Inventory _____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. automatically approves, but does not post the cycle count adjustment
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
Answer: A
45. ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances. The Approval Required option is set to: If out of
tolerance and Automatic Recounts is set to threE.
When the first cycle count actual quantity exceeds the item approval tolerance, Inventory ____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment
Answer: C
46. Which two reports detail pending inventory adjustments for a count? (Choose two.)
A. Cycle Count Listing
B. Physical Inventory Tag Listing
C. Physical Inventory Counts Report
D. Physical Inventory Adjustments Report
E. Cycle Counts Pending Approval Report
F. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report
Answer: DE
47. After several cycle counts have been performed, the client wants to identify those items that consistently
require adjustment.
Which report will help the client identify those items?
A. Cycle Count Listing
B. Cycle Count Hit/Miss Analysis
C. Cycle Count Unscheduled Items Report
D. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report
Answer: D
48. For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing, what are the system
requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)
A. The Receiving Transaction manager must be activE.
B. The Cost Manager interface manager must be activE.
C. The Move Transaction interface manager must be activE.
D. The Material Transaction interface manager must be activE.
E. The Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be activE.
Answer: BD
49. The client uses an external application as the source for cycle counts.
What value should be used for the profile option INV: CCEOI Commit Point to ensure successful processing of
the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program consistently?
A. Create
B. Process
C. Simulate
D. A number
Answer: D
50. The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse stafF. However, only the warehouse
manager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are out of tolerancE.
What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose threE. )
A. the frequency of the recounts required
B. the number of automatic recounts required
C. the tolerance level for automatic adjustment
D. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehousE.
E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts function
F. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count
Answer: BCE
51. What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for inventory items using the Current
on-hand value as the compile criterion?
A. items costed only
B. items with on-hand quantity only
C. either items with on-hand quantity or items costed
D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed
Answer: D
52. For performing an ABC analysis, you need to define ABC Compile, ABC Classes, and ABC Assignment
Groups.
Identify two correct actions. (Choose two.)
A. Link an ABC Group to an ABC CompilE.
B. Link an ABC Compile to an ABC Group.
C. Assign an ABC Group to an ABC Class.
D. Assign an ABC Class to an ABC Group.
E. Enable an ABC Group in Subinventories.
Answer: BD
53. ACME is using cycle counting and the quantity variance approval tolerances are specified at the cycle count
header level, cycle count Class level, and cycle count item level.
When tolerances are set up at all the levels, which tolerance is considered first by Inventory?
A. Unit cost level
B. Subinventory level
C. Cycle count item level
D. Cycle count class level
E. Cycle count header level
Answer: C
54. ACME has specified both quantity variance and adjustment value approval tolerances at the cycle count
header level only.
The Approval Required option is set to: If out of tolerancE.
Inventory automatically approves the actual count entered when ____.
A. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the quantity variance tolerance
B. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the adjustment value approval tolerance
C. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within either the quantity variance tolerance or the adjustment
value approval tolerance
D. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within both the quantity variance tolerance and the adjustment
value approval tolerance
Answer: D
55. Which Inventory table stores the item attribute values assigned to a system item?
A. MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS_B
B. MTL_ITEM_ATTRIBUTES
C. MTL_ITEM_TEMPLATES_B
D. MTL_STATUS_ATTRIBUTE_VALUES
Answer: A
56. Which table stores the categories assigned to a system item?
A. MTL_CATEGORIES_B
B. MTL_CATEGORIES_TL
C. MTL_ITEM_CATEGORIES
D. FND_ITEM_CATEGORIES
Answer: C
57. An item reserved at the S/N level is associated with ________.
A. MTL_SALES_ORDERS
B. MTL_SERIAL_NUMBERS
C. MTL_CMRO_ALLOC_ALL
D. OE_ORDER_HEADERS_ALL
Answer: B
58. Select two tables that are used with Subinventories and Locators. (Choose two.)
A. MTL_PARAMETERS
B. GL_CODE_COMBINATION
C. MTL_INTERORG_PARAMETERS
D. MTL_ITEM_TEMPL_ATTRIBUTES
E. MTL_STATUS_ATTRIBUTE_VALUES
Answer: AB
59. Which three pieces of information does the eTRM Technical Reference provide access to? (Choose threE. )
A. data dictionaries
B. available patches
C. logical data models
D. application white papers
E. table relationship diagrams
F. cross-platform performance information
Answer: ACE
60. In the eTRM Technical Reference, where can you find the workflows associated with an application?
A. PDF files
B. FND data
C. DBA data
D. HTML files
Answer: B
61. Your client has material that varies in size, weight, and container typE. It wants to have flexibility in creating
locators based upon receipt of goods.
Which Locator Control type would accommodate this requirement?
A. None
B. Item Level
C. Prespecified
D. Dynamic Entry
E. Subinventory Level
Answer: D
62. Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations (SO).
The sales organizations would not transact inventory items.
IO 2 would not be used right away, but would be created during the implementation.
What is the minimum number of subinventories required for this implementation?
A. four (one for each IO being utilized at implementation)
B. five (One for each IO. SOs would not require subinventories.)
C. eight (Inventory and sales organizations require a minimum of one subinventory eacH. )
D. 10 (Each IO requires at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shippinG. )
E. 16 (Each IO and SO should have at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shippinG. )
Answer: B
63. An inventory organization can be defined as a facility where you can store and transact items. They can be
either physical or logical entities.
Select four common inventory organizations. (Choose four.)
A. Office Site
B. Item Master
C. Warehouse
D. Inspection Dock
E. Distribution Center
F. Manufacturing Site
G. Human Resources
H. Receiving Location
Answer: BCEF
64. The inventory organizations are set up to use their own organization as the costing organization.
Which two statements are true regarding item standard costs? (Choose two.)
A. An item can have different standard costs across the different inventory organizations of a single operating unit.
B. An item cannot have different standard costs across the different inventory organizations of a single operating
unit.
C. An item can have different standard costs across different inventory organizations, regardless of the operating
unit.
D. If one inventory organization is set up with standard costing, then a second organization would have to use
standard costing as well.
E. An item can have different standard costs in different inventory organizations, but only if the organizations are
under different operating units.
Answer: AC
65. You are creating an interorganization transfer. The standard shipping lead time defined for the transfer is 14
days. You want to move the inventory from the source and put it in Intransit.
You made a mistake and did not choose the option to have Intransit Inventory.
When you initiate the process for interorganization transfer, what is the result of the transaction?
A. You would get an error for the transaction, because it violates referential integrity.
B. The inventory would not be moved from the source organization, because there is a lead time of 14 days
defineD.
C. The inventory would be moved from the source organization, but it would be moved directly to the destination
organization.
D. The inventory would be moved from the source organization, but it would be moved to Intransit Inventory,
because there is a lead time of 14 days defineD.
Answer: C
66. Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is in New
Jersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions.
The following requirements are identical for the two organizations:
a) Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirm.
b) There is a two-step receiving process.
c) Only approved orders would be performeD.
Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?
A. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checked
B. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = unchecked
C. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required = checked
D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required = checked
E. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required = checked
Answer: C
67. Your client has two inventory organizations (INV ORG 1 and INV ORG 2). The organizations have different
business requirements for stock locator control:
INV ORG 1:
Locators must have:
Building identified
Stockroom designated
Row
Rack
Bin
INV ORG 2:
Locators must have:
Row
Rack
Bin
Position within Bin
Which solution would meet both organizations’ requirements?
A. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can use the first segment as Row.
B. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 2 can use DFF for Position within Bin.
C. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can leave the fifth segment with a default
valuE.
D. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 1 can create DFF and use that as Building
identifier.
E. Establish stock locator flexfields as six segments. INV ORG 1 can create locators where the sixth segment can
be a default valuE.
Answer: C
68. Company ABC is using serialization in all organizations that manage inventory. It wants each organization to
determine the proper levels of serial control. The products in each organization are completely different, so having
the same serial numbers on different products is acceptablE.
The only global requirement is that serial numbers be generated in advance, to prevent incorrect serial number
types from being createD. Using the table below, choose the cell that represents the correct parameter and attribute
combination to meet Company ABC’s needs.
A. B
B. C
C. F
D. H
E. K
F. L
Answer: A
69. You need to set up a Material Review Board (MRB) subinventory for storing defective goods that are awaiting
disposition. The management team does not want the material in the MRB subinventory to be considered by the
Material Requirements Plan (MRP).
Which is the key flag in the setup that instructs MRP not to account for the material in the MRB subinventory?
A. Nettable flag deselected
B. Planning flag deselected
C. Quantity Tracked flag selected
D. Allow Reservation flag deselected
E. Asset Subinventory flag deselected
Answer: A
70. A parts distributor has a facility that includes several buildings that are used as warehouses. All the warehouses
together represent one subinventory in an inventory organization.
Each building is multistoried, and each floor (story) has several rooms within each building that are unique to that
buildinG.
All rooms are used to store material, and the distributor needs the ability to store material and pick material from
these rooms.
What is the optimum number of segments that you would recommend for the Stock Locator flexfield?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
71. Which two statements are true about the relationship between a subinventory and a locator? (Choose two.)
A. Each subinventory can have multiple locators.
B. Each locator can be associated with multiple subinventories.
C. To make a subinventory locator-controlled, you have to set the Locator Control to PrespecifieD.
D. A subinventory has only one locator. When the locator is inactivated, the subinventory also gets inactivateD.
E. You can restrict the subinventory that an item can reside in, by selecting the Restrict Subinventory flag on the
Item. You can restrict the locator that the item can reside in within the subinventory, by selecting the Restrict
Locator flag on the Item Master.
Answer: AE
72. When you set up a subinventory, you have to set up accounts for the subinventory.
From which account does the Expense Account default?
A. the Expense Accrual Account from the Intercompany Relations setup form
B. the Expense Account setup on the Purchasing tab of the Item Master Record
C. the Default Cost Group that the system assigns when setting up the organization
D. the Expense Accrual Account on the Receipt Accounting tab of the Purchasing Options form
E. the Expense Account from the Valuation Accounts region of the Organization Parameters form
Answer: E
73. Your client wants approvals for Move Orders to occur after 30 days.
Based on the Move Order approval workflow, how would you enter the values for Move Order Timeout Period
and Move Order Timeout Action?
A. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Reject Automatically
B. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Reject Automatically
C. Timeout Period = 0, Action = Approve Automatically
D. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Approve Automatically
E. Timeout Period = 10, Action = Approve Automatically
F. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Approve Automatically
Answer: F
74. There is a region called Inter-Organization Transfer Accounts in the Organization Parameters form, on the
Inter-Organization taB.
What is the meaning of the “Payables” field in this region?
A. The default general ledger account that is used to collect transfer charges when this organization is the shipping
organization. This is usually an expense account.
B. The default general ledger account that is used to hold intransit inventory valuE. This is usually an asset
account. For average cost organizations, this account is the default material account.
C. The default general ledger account that is used to collect the purchase price variance for interorganization
receipts into standard cost organizations. This is usually an expense account.
D. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when this organization
is the shipping organization. This is usually an asset account.
E. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when this organization
is the receiving organization. This is usually a liability account.
Answer: E
75. Company X has a single Inventory Organization. It wants to monitor aged material. Specifically, it needs to
ensure that its products have the most current calibration.
Profile Option INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date has two selections.
Which selection is correct?
A. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is lost upon issuE.
B. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is picked for
shippinG.
C. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is issued out
of inventory.
D. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is retained until new inventory is positioned
in the same locator.
E. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is moved to
nonnettable subinventory.
Answer: C
76. Profile options can be either required or optional. All required options must have a valuE.
Which two profile options are required when setting up Oracle Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. INV: Validate Returned Lot
B. INV: Accounting Category Set
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials
D. INV: Default Primary Unit of Measure
E. INV: Replenishment Move Order Grouping
Answer: BD
77. Evaluate the settings below:
From To Transfer Type FOB Receipt Routing
Org 1 Org 2 Intransit Receipt Direct
Org 2 Org 1 Intransit Shipment Standard
At what point would ownership transfers occur during shipments between the organizations?
A. As soon as Org 1 performs Ship Confirm, ownership is transferred to Org 2 immediately.
B. Both organizations own the material upon receipt only because Transit Type is Intransit.
C. When shipping from Org 1 to Org 2, Org 1 owns the material until Org 2 processes a receipt against shipment
number.
D. When shipping from Org 2 to Org 1, ownership changes, and Org 2 owns the material until Org 1 processes a
receipt against shipment number.
Answer: A
78. Revision control is set at the organization level. Both Colorado and New York sites have item A under revision
control.
Item A was shipped from the Colorado site to the New York site on Internal Order using Revision B.
Since that time, revision control at the Colorado site has been changed to a numeric value and the current revision
is 3.
Now, New York is returning item A on an Internal Order with Revision B.
What would happen when Colorado attempts to receive this unit?
A. Colorado would have to temporarily change revision control to allow receipt.
B. The transaction can be processed as normal. Old revisions that were issued are still valiD.
C. Receipt can be transacted, but the new revision number would have to be assigned upon receipt.
D. New York would have to change revision control to match Colorado for transaction to be successful.
E. The receipt cannot be transacted without DBA intervention. After the revision is changed, you cannot use a
previous version.
Answer: B
79. Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations (SO).
The company has defined shipping networks based on these policies:
Inventory Organizations within an Operating Unit (OU) can perform shipments to the Sales Organizations only
within the same OU.
An Inventory Organization can ship to any other Inventory Organization in the company.
The only exception to the rule is China, which can ship to any US organization.
Which sites can IO 3 ship to?
A. IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
B. IO 1, IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5
C. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
D. IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
E. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 1, SO 2, SO 3
Answer: C
80. What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?
A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions
B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM
C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM
D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class
E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions
Answer: A
81. A purchase order is created for item A with UOM = BX (box).
The primary UOM = PK (pack) and the secondary UOM is BX.
A shipment arrives for 12 boxes.
The UOM conversion is 1 BX = 10 PK.
Which UOM should the receiver use, and how would the inventory on-hand (OH) change?
A. Receive 120 PK. This is the primary UOM and should be used for receipt.
B. Receive 12 PK. Conversion would occur after receipt. OH would show 120 PK.
C. Receive 12 BX. OH would be updated with primary UOM and would increase by 120 PK.
D. Receive 12 BX. OH would not be converted; actual UOM would be useD. OH would be updated with 12
BX.
Answer: C
82. Each UOM class must have a base unit specifieD.
Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?
A. One
B. Each
C. Case
D. Gross
E. Dozen
Answer: B
83. You have an item that has four different units of measure (UOMs) defined for usagE. They are Each, Pack,
Box, and CasE.
1 Pack = 24 Each
2 Packs = 1 Box
4 Boxes = 1 Case
What conversions need to be established to accommodate these four relationships?
A. Each =1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 24 Each, 1 Case = 96 Each
B. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 192 Each
C. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 168 Each
D. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 240 Each, 1 Case = 240 Each
E. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 12 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case =1920 Each
F. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case = 1920 Each
Answer: B
84. Which two statements are true regarding lot-based unit of measure (UOM) conversions? (Choose two.)
A. You cannot update existing on-hand balances for lot-based UOM conversions.
B. You can create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balancE.
C. You cannot create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balancE.
D. During a PO receipt, the lot-based conversion cannot be updated if the lot does not match existing conversion
rates.
E. Updating the on-hand balance on a lot-based UOM conversion requires a cycle count transaction with the lot
number provided in the count recorD.
Answer: BD
85. ABC Company has one distribution center and one manufacturing plant. Both the distribution center and
manufacturing plant have identical items that are specific to their organization. You are required to design the item
repository structure for both organizations.
What is your recommendation for the item repository structure?
A. Create two master organizations, one for the distribution center and the other for the manufacturing plant.
B. There is no need for an item master organization. The distribution center and manufacturing plant items are
loaded in two organization items.
C. Set it up so that manufacturing plant items are loaded in the item master organization and distribution center
items are loaded in organization items.
D. Set it up so that distribution center items are loaded in the item master organization and manufacturing plant
items are loaded in organization items.
E. Create one item master that holds both distribution center and manufacturing plant items. Assign the respective
master item to the distribution center and manufacturing plants.
Answer: E
86. Vision Corporation is a semiconductor discrete manufacturing organization. It has its own manufacturing and
distribution centers located globally.
It has these operating units:
US – USA operating unit
CAN – Canadian operating unit
UK – UK operating unit
MX – Mexican operating unit
IND – India operating unit
SPA -Spain operating unit
FRA – France operating unit
NL – Netherlands operating Unit
GER – Germany operating unit
These are the inventory organizations that exist in each operating unit:
Inventory Org – Operating unit
——————————————–
VC (Master Org) – US
US1 (Child Org) – US
US2 (Child Org) – US
CA1 (Child Org) – CAN
MX1 (Child Org) – MX
IN1 (Child Org) – IND
SP1 (Child Org) – SPA
FR1 (Child Org) – FRA
NL1 (Child Org) – NL
GE1 (Child Org) – GER
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Master organization VC cannot be shared across operating units.
B. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across operating units.
C. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same operating unit to assign items.
D. You can define an item in IN1 inventory organization and assign it to GE1 inventory organization.
E. Items defined in VC organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.
Answer: CE
87. You need to provide a solution for defining some of the attributes that are needed to purchase and control the
storage of hazardous materials.
The materials manager has these requirements:
1) The system should force the material handler to store a particular hazardous material in a unique subinventory.
2) The material should not be shipped to a customer or another inventory organization.
Which three item attributes would you enable? (Choose threE. )
A. Lot control
B. Purchased
C. Purchasable
D. Default Buyer
E. Restrict Subinventories
F. RMA Inspection Allowed
Answer: BCE
88. The materials manager has noticed that several items were created and assigned to various inventory
organizations, but the analyst skipped the Copy from Template step. The manager would like to know how to
correct the items.
Which three statements are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Apply the template in the organization item. It would automatically update the Master Item window.
B. You can use the Item Attribute Copy form to update the value of an item attribute across multiple organizations
in a given organization hierarchy.
C. You can change an organization-level attribute with the Master Item window. If you do this, it will update the
organization-level attribute across all organizations.
D. You can use the Organization Item window to update organization-level item attributes. This would update
organization-level attributes in your current organization only.
E. To update master-level attributes, use the Master Item window. If an attribute is controlled at the master level,
the value of the attribute applies for all organizations to which the item is assigneD.
Answer: BDE
89. Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose threE. )
A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.
B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.
C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.
D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization
level.
E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations
while transacting on an item.
F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization
level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.
Answer: BDE
90. Company ABC has a factory that is set up as an inventory organization with several subinventories.
Each of the subinventories has locators. The factory purchases material using a purchase order.
The person who receives the purchase order does not know which subinventory and locator the material needs to
go to.
ABC wants the subinventory and locator to be automatically populated for that item.
Which option would solve the problem?
A. Populate the completion subinventory and locator on the routing for that item.
B. Use the restrict subinventory and restrict locator flag on the Item Master record of that item.
C. Populate the supply subinventory and locator fields on the Item Master record for the purchased item.
D. Use the Item Transactions Default form to create default subinventory and locators for the purchased item.
Answer: D
91. There are no interdependent attributes. Which three statements are true about defining an item using a
template? (Choose threE. )
A. You can apply multiple templates to an item.
B. A template can be applied only at the master organization level.
C. A template can be applied at the master or child organization levels.
D. Modifying an item template would automatically update the items that were previously defined using that
templatE.
E. Template application is exclusivE. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would not retain any
values of the prior templatE.
F. A template applied to a master item, which has already been assigned to a child organization, can still update
the organization-controlled item.
G. Template application is additivE. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would retain the values
of all the attributes that were not enabled by the second templatE.
Answer: ACG
92. ABC Company has two manufacturing plants. Both plants share common item attributes for the finished goods.
However, for the subassembly, each plant has different attributes such as lead time, and so on. ABC Company
requires all the attribute changes to be controlled by the templatE.
How many templates need to be created to meet this requirement?
A. Two global templates, one for finished goods and one for the subassembly.
B. Two organization templates, one for the finished goods and one for the subassembly.
C. Three organization-specific templates, one for the finished goods and two for the subassembly.
D. One global template for finished goods and one organization template for the subassembly.
E. One global template for the finished goods and two organization-specific templates for the subassembly.
Answer: E
93. You applied a subassembly template for an item at the master level. Four main attributes of the subassembly
template are:
- primary unit of measure (UOM): EA
- minimum order quanity: 5
- maximum order quantity: 10
- fixed lead time: 2
After applying the template, you find that the attributes are not correct. You correct the template with these
attributes:
- primary UOM: LB
- minimum order quantity: 7
- maximum order quantity: 12
- fixed lead time: 4
You reapply the templatE.
Which attributes are updated in the item?
A. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4
B. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 2
C. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 4
D. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4
E. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 2
Answer: D
94. Your customer has two manufacturing plants. The manufacturing process for both the plants is identical, but
there are differences in specific areas.
1. Plant 1 uses min-max planning and Plant 2 uses re-order point planninG.
2. Plant 1 and Plant 2′s Variable Lead Times are different.
3. Plant 1 and Plant 2 use two different WIP (Work In Process) supply subinventories.
Which two attribute control settings meet the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Organization Level: WIP Supply Subinventory
B. Master Level: Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP
Organization Level: Inventory Planning Method
C. Organization Level: Variable Lead Time, WIP Supply Subinventory
D. Master Level: Stockable, Variable Lead Time, Inventory Planning Method
Organization Level: Transactable
E. Master Level: Transactable, Inventory Planning Method, Variable Lead Time
F. Master Level: WIP Supply Subinventory, Variable Lead Time, Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP
Answer: BC
95. You are implementing the inventory module for a chemical manufacturing customer. They have only one
organization that performs manufacturing as well as order processinG.
Which four attributes control the functionality of an item? (Choose four.)
A. Purchased
B. Inventory Item
C. Recipe Enabled
D. Internal Ordered
E. Costing Enabled
F. Engineering Item
G. MRP Planning Method
H. Internal Orders Enabled
I. Customer Ordered Item
J. Customer Orders Enabled
K. Process Execution Enabled
Answer: CHJK
96. Your customer is interested in implementing revision control for the finished goods model items.
Which two requirements can be met by implementing revision control? (Choose two.)
A. changing model functionality when on-hand quantity is available
B. tracking design changes in other modules (BOM, Work In Process) with a different model number
C. scrapping the old model and introducing a new model which has changes in functionality and features
D. accommodating a slight design change in the model, where functionality and features remain the same
E. tracking design changes in all other functions, such as Bill of Materials, Routings, Work in Process, and so on,
using the same model number
Answer: DE
97. Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)
A. Planning, Engineering, Costing
B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory
C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials
D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing
E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process
F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger
G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process
Answer: AD
98. A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasing category
structure is set up as Item Category.Commodity.
The user has described the problem as follows:
“I am able to select 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive an error.”
Identify two reasons for the error. (Choose two.)
A. The commodity 33 has been deactivateD.
B. The item category 110 has been deactivateD.
C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.
D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.
E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.
F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.
G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfielD.
Answer: DE
99. You would set up the profile option INV: Item Master Flexfield _____.
A. for items from legacy system referenced in this field
B. in the initial setup on inventory for defaulting purpose
C. to capture the item descriptive information on this field
D. to indicate which flexfield is used to define items in MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS
E. for first time setup of the item master flexfield to denote the key flexfield compiled
Answer: D
100. What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Override Neg for Backflush = Yes?
A. It would not allow inventory to be driven negativE.
B. Backflush transactions would drive inventory negativE.
C. Backflush transactions would not drive inventory negativE.
D. Backflush and inventory transactions would drive inventory negativE.
E. Backflush and inventory transactions would not drive inventory negativE.
F. It would permit the driving of on-hand inventory negative for miscellaneous issue transactions.
Answer: B
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