oracle-ebs-r12-inventory-and-order-management-fundamentals-1z0-226

1. The Check ATP option is enabled for an item in the Finished Goods subinventory.
Which action will occur?
A. Check the quantity requested against forecast.
B. Generate a requisition for the requested quantity.
C. Permit order booking based on a successful test.
D. Check the quantity requested against safety stock.
E. Check the quantity requested against Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
Answer: C
2. The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse stafF. However, only the
warehouse manager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are out
of tolerancE.
What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose threE. )
A. the frequency of the recounts required
B. the number of automatic recounts required
C. the tolerance level for automatic adjustment
D. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehousE.
E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts function
F. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count
Answer: BCE
3. Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is in
New Jersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions.
The following requirements are identical for the two organizations:
a) Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirm.
b) There is a two-step receiving process.
c) Only approved orders would be performeD.
Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?
A. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checked
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B. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required =
unchecked
C. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =
checked
D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =
checked
E. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required =
checked
Answer: C
4. Each UOM class must have a base unit specifieD.
Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?
A. One
B. Each
C. Case
D. Gross
E. Dozen
Answer: B
5. A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasing
category structure is set up as Item Category.Commodity.
The user has described the problem as follows:
“I am able to select 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive an
error.”
Identify two reasons for the error. (Choose two.)
A. The commodity 33 has been deactivateD.
B. The item category 110 has been deactivateD.
C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.
D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.
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E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.
F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.
G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfielD.
Answer: DE
6. XYZ is a chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a
single production batcH.
100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration datE. However, the purity
of item A varies as follows:
Category 1: 95%
Category 2: 85%
Category 3: 50%
From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories as coproducts.
B. Enable lot control for item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with
serial numbers.
Answer: D
7. For which type of move order is approval required?
A. Planning Move Order
B. Shipping Move Order
C. Production Move Order
D. Requisition Move Order
E. Replenishment Move Order
Answer: D
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8. Identify four functions that a user can perform using the Material WorkbencH. (Choose four)
A. Create move orders.
B. Create and save queries.
C. Change material statuses.
D. Perform miscellaneous issues.
E. Perform miscellaneous receipts.
F. Perform pick confirm transactions.
G. Perform ship confirm transactions.
H. View material in receiving, on-hand quantities, and intransit material.
Answer: ABCH
9. The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage,
so new supply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the Open
Transactions InterfacE.
The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management.
Which three seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose threE. )
A. average cost update
B. all internal transactions
C. backflush subinventory transfer
D. miscellaneous issues and receipts
E. all transaction types related to Work in Process
F. all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing
Answer: CEF
10. ACME attempts the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been bookeD.
Which three options are valid? (Choose threE. )
A. Run the Auto Allocate process.
B. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process.
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C. Run the Interface Trip Stop process.
D. Use the Standard Report Submission process (SRS).
E. Execute Online from the Release Sales Order window.
F. Run a concurrent program from the Release Sales Order window.
Answer: DEF
11. PTO Kits consist of _____.
A. a standard BOM
B. a configurable BOM
C. a standard BOM with mandatory included options
D. a configurable BOM with mandatory included options
E. an engineering BOM with mandatory included options
Answer: C
12. Identify the four statements related to the MOAC functionality. (Choose four.)
A. When querying any transaction, one must specify the operating unit.
B. The Operating Unit field is a display-only field for all the transaction forms.
C. While entering a transaction, the Operating Unit needs to be selected in case the user wants an
Operating Unit other than the default.
D. While querying for a transaction, entering the Operating Unit helps the application to query lesser
number of transactions and results in better performancE.
E. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage
Sales Orders and Returns across multiple operating units.
F. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage
Sales Agreements and Quotes across multiple operating units.
Answer: CDEF
13. Weight and physical dimensions are examples of ____.
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A. an item attribute
B. an item parameter
C. an item profile option
D. an item master characteristic
Answer: A
14. Identify three correct statements regarding customer acceptance setups. (Choose threE. )
A. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the inventory organization level.
B. For enabling customer acceptance, no setup is required in OM.
C. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the OM operating-unit level.
D. Define assignment rules for deferral reasons at the customer, site, or item level.
E. The first step to enable customer acceptance is to set the OM system parameter: Enable Fulfillment
AcceptancE.
F. The second step of the customer acceptance setup is to define customer acceptance deferral reasons
in the AR revenue management setup.
Answer: CEF
15. What are the three necessary setup steps to enable system credit checking on an order? (Choose
threE. )
A. Assign a credit rule to the order type being useD.
B. Select a warehouse that has credit checking enableD.
C. Enable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.
D. Use a payment term for which the Credit check box is enableD.
E. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is selecteD.
F. Make sure that there is at least one defaulting rule enabled for credit checkinG.
Answer: ADE
16. Select two correct statements regarding the workflow holds/activities/Exception Management.
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(Choose two.)
A. The Retry concurrent program can be run only at Execution modE.
B. Retry workflow activities are possible only at individual error levels.
C. Retry workflow activities are possible in batch mode via concurrent program.
D. Retry workflow activities cannot be launched from the Process Messages window.
E. When a ship line activity errors out after the line has progressed and the delivery detail is closed, the
line status displays as Notify instead of Retry.
Answer: CE
17. During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a
supplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.
When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D
18. Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is
checkeD. An internal requisition has been created and approveD.
What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E
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19. Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the
item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods
received from nonlocal sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH
20. Which data is provided by Oracle Purchasing to Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply, planning supply, and requisition information
B. items, requisition, and interorganization shipment information
C. receipts/deliveries and interorganization shipment information
D. receipts/deliveries, ATP supply, and planning supply information
E. receipts/deliveries, units of measure, ATP supply, and planning supply information
Answer: D
21. Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Choose two pieces of information that Oracle Payables, Receivables, and Costing applications receive
from the Inventory modulE. (Choose two.)
A. Item information
B. UOM information
C. On-hand information
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D. ATP supply information
E. Transaction accounting detail information
Answer: AB
22. What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?
A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.
B. (alpha) is always greater than onE.
C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.
D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.
E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous perioD.
Answer: D
23. You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to
meet the client’s needs.
You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential
Smoothing after one year.
Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to
re-evaluate the forecasting methoD.
What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?
A. Focus Forecasting
B. Exponential Smoothing
C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients
Answer: C
24. The Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method should be selected when _____.
A. trend demand patterns are greater than alpha ()
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B. seasonal demand patterns are greater than
C. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are equal to zero
D. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are less than
E. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are greater than
Answer: C
25. You are implementing inventory and plan to use Focus ForecastinG.
Focus Forecasting assumes that the forecasting method that worked best for the previous period _____
and _____. (Choose two.)
A. will be best for the current period
B. was based on heuristic processes
C. was based on stochastic processes
D. will result from comparing five forecast methods
E. will use the method that yields the greatest absolute percentage error (APE)
Answer: AD
26. ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is
on-hand inventory for 200 different motors.
For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max can automatically create _____.
A. an expense account
B. an encumbrance account
C. an invoice price variance account
D. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual account
E. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table
Answer: E
27. The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They
currently use min-max planninG. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed
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on the items the client wants to plan?
A. Safety Stock Quantity and Forecast
B. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost
C. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, and Order Cost
D. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Maximum Order Quantity
E. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity
Answer: C
28. Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific subinventories. You
caution him not to include too many customer orders when he runs the report.
What option do you suggest that he include?
A. Supply Cutoff Date
B. Demand Cutoff Date
C. Supply and Demand Cutoff Dates
D. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)
Answer: B
29. ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the
min-max planning report is deployeD.
What will be the result?
A. Requisitions will be pre-approveD.
B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf lifE.
C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fencE.
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E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item’s Economic Order Quantity
(EOQ).
Answer: A
30. What is the significance of the Shrinkage Rate item attribute?
A. The expected reduction in demand within the planning fence
B. The average loss of material during manufacturing or storage
C. The expected decrease in the rate of production of units during manufacturing
D. The expected percentage (%) loss of quality of an item during the manufacturing process or storage
Answer: B
31. Which two statements are true regarding Inventory replenishment methods? (Choose two.)
A. Kanban replenishment signals are manual.
B. Kanban replenishment signals are automatiC.
C. Reorder point planning can be performed at the subinventory level.
D. Min-max planning considers lead time and is not based on demand projections.
E. Replenishment counting enables you to perform counts for nontracked subinventories, and then direct
Inventory to check these counts against the minimum quantities that you have specifieD.
Answer: AE
32. Which is the best method for replenishing free stock items that are stored on the production floor, or
office supplies kept in departmental cabinets?
A. Cycle counting
B. Min-max planning
C. Replenishment counting
D. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
E. Enabling the Bulk Picked item master attribute
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Answer: C
33. Available to Promise (ATP) checking can be specified _____.
A. at the component level
B. as a function of unconsumed forecast
C. as a function of forward unconsumed forecast
D. only for finished goods at the subinventory level
E. as a function of backward unconsumed forecast
Answer: A
34. How many distinct ABC Compile Names can exist at a given time in an inventory organization?
A. an unlimited number of names
B. only one for each subinventory
C. only one per inventory organization
D. one for each subinventory and one for each inventory organization
Answer: A
35. Select one accurate and comprehensive description of the content scope of an ABC CompilE.
A. performed at the inventory organization level only
B. performed at the individual subinventory level only
C. performed at the inventory organization or individual subinventory level
D. performed at the individual subinventory level with a choice to include the same items from all
subinventories in the organization
Answer: C
36. Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose threE. )
A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.
B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.
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C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expense) subinventories for which quantities are
trackeD.
D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a subinventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked
subinventory.
E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the
tolerance levels.
F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the
cycle count header level.
Answer: ACF
37. Identify three levels at which you can generate cycle count requests and perform cycle counting
under a single cycle count namE. (Choose threE. )
A. by Item Category
B. for all subinventories
C. by Item Category Set
D. by bonded Warehouse
E. for a specific subinventory
F. by specific Stock Locator
G. for a selected set of subinventories
Answer: BEG
38. Identify five valid steps in defining a Physical Inventory. (Choose fivE. )
A. Void unused or lost tags.
B. Reconcile Cost of Goods updates.
C. Allow only WIP and purchasing transactions.
D. Take a snapshot of system on-hand quantities.
E. Approve or reject Physical Inventory adjustments based on approval tolerances.
F. Automatically post adjustments to inventory balances and general ledger accounts.
G. Define a Physical Inventory for your whole warehouse or subinventories within your warehousE.
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H. Run the Physical Inventory variance report for the controller to credit or debit an entry on the cost of
goods solD.
Answer: ADEFG
39. What is the purpose of the Physical Inventory Snapshot?
A. to permit the entry of inventory transactions
B. to prevent the entry of inventory transactions
C. to provide the opening balance value for the fiscal perioD.
D. to provide the baseline for comparison of physical count quantities against system on-hand quantities.
Answer: D
40. Which two statements apply to a Physical Inventory Tag as defined by Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. Physical Inventory Tags cannot be bar codeD.
B. It can contain a count for a group of a given item.
C. It is produced and printed by the Generate Physical Inventory Tags function.
D. It is unique for every stock locator/item/lot number/serial number combination.
E. It is used to indicate to the warehouse staff that a count has been recorded for that location, so that a
duplicate count is not performeD.
Answer: BD
41. Cycle count variance approval tolerances have been defined for a cycle count. The Approval
Required option in the cycle count has been set to: If out of tolerancE.
When an item count exceeds the approval tolerance specified, Inventory _____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment after approval
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Answer: B
42. ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances and the Approval Required option is set
to: If out of tolerancE.
When the actual count falls within tolerance, Inventory _____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. automatically approves, but does not post the cycle count adjustment
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
Answer: A
43. ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances. The Approval Required option is set to:
If out of tolerance and Automatic Recounts is set to threE.
When the first cycle count actual quantity exceeds the item approval tolerance, Inventory ____.
A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustment
B. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approval
C. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment
D. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment
Answer: C
44. Which two reports detail pending inventory adjustments for a count? (Choose two.)
A. Cycle Count Listing
B. Physical Inventory Tag Listing
C. Physical Inventory Counts Report
D. Physical Inventory Adjustments Report
E. Cycle Counts Pending Approval Report
F. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report
Answer: DE
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45. After several cycle counts have been performed, the client wants to identify those items that
consistently require adjustment.
Which report will help the client identify those items?
A. Cycle Count Listing
B. Cycle Count Hit/Miss Analysis
C. Cycle Count Unscheduled Items Report
D. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report
Answer: D
46. For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing, what are the
system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)
A. The Receiving Transaction manager must be activE.
B. The Cost Manager interface manager must be activE.
C. The Move Transaction interface manager must be activE.
D. The Material Transaction interface manager must be activE.
E. The Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be activE.
Answer: BD
47. The client uses an external application as the source for cycle counts.
What value should be used for the profile option INV: CCEOI Commit Point to ensure successful
processing of the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program consistently?
A. Create
B. Process
C. Simulate
D. A number
Answer: D
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48. What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the
Cycle Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C
49. What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for inventory items using the
Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?
A. items costed only
B. items with on-hand quantity only
C. either items with on-hand quantity or items costed
D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed
Answer: D
50. For performing an ABC analysis, you need to define ABC Compile, ABC Classes, and ABC
Assignment Groups.
Identify two correct actions. (Choose two.)
A. Link an ABC Group to an ABC CompilE.
B. Link an ABC Compile to an ABC Group.
C. Assign an ABC Group to an ABC Class.
D. Assign an ABC Class to an ABC Group.
E. Enable an ABC Group in Subinventories.
Answer: BD
51. ACME is using cycle counting and the quantity variance approval tolerances are specified at the
cycle count header level, cycle count Class level, and cycle count item level.
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When tolerances are set up at all the levels, which tolerance is considered first by Inventory?
A. Unit cost level
B. Subinventory level
C. Cycle count item level
D. Cycle count Class level
E. Cycle count header level
Answer: C
52. ACME has specified both quantity variance and adjustment value approval tolerances at the cycle
count header level only.
The Approval Required option is set to: If out of tolerancE.
Inventory automatically approves the actual count entered when ____.
A. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the quantity variance tolerance
B. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the adjustment value approval tolerance
C. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within either the quantity variance tolerance or the
adjustment value approval tolerance
D. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within both the quantity variance tolerance and the
adjustment value approval tolerance
Answer: D
53. Which Inventory table stores the item attribute values assigned to a system item?
A. MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS_B
B. MTL_ITEM_ATTRIBUTES
C. MTL_ITEM_TEMPLATES_B
D. MTL_STATUS_ATTRIBUTE_VALUES
Answer: A
54. Which Inventory table stores reservations information generated for sales orders?
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A. MTL_DEMAND
B. MTL_SALES_ORDERS
C. OE_ORDER_LINES_ALL
D. MTL_GENERIC_DISPOSITIONS
Answer: A
55. Items assigned the Primary Key: CATEGORY_SET_ID are ________.
A. restricted to a single Category Set
B. required by MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS_B
C. not restricted to a single Category Set
D. required by MTL_CATEGORY_SET_VALID_CATS
Answer: C
56. An item reserved at the S/N level is associated with ________.
A. MTL_SALES_ORDERS
B. MTL_SERIAL_NUMBERS
C. MTL_CMRO_ALLOC_ALL
D. OE_ORDER_HEADERS_ALL
Answer: B
57. Which three pieces of information does the eTRM Technical Reference provide access to? (Choose
threE. )
A. data dictionaries
B. available patches
C. logical data models
D. application white papers
E. table relationship diagrams
F. cross-platform performance information
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Answer: ACE
58. In the eTRM Technical Reference, where can you find the workflows associated with an application?
A. PDF files
B. FND data
C. DBA data
D. HTML files
Answer: B
59. Your client has material that varies in size, weight, and container typE. It wants to have flexibility in
creating locators based upon receipt of goods.
Which Locator Control type would accommodate this requirement?
A. None
B. Item Level
C. Prespecified
D. Dynamic Entry
E. Subinventory Level
Answer: D
60. Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations
(SO).
The sales organizations would not transact inventory items.
IO 2 would not be used right away, but would be created during the implementation.
What is the minimum number of subinventories required for this implementation?
A. four (one for each IO being utilized at implementation)
B. five (One for each IO. SOs would not require subinventories.)
C. eight (Inventory and sales organizations require a minimum of one subinventory eacH. )
D. 10 (Each IO requires at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shippinG. )
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E. 16 (Each IO and SO should have at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shippinG. )
Answer: B
61. An inventory organization can be defined as a facility where you can store and transact items. They
can be either physical or logical entities.
Select four common inventory organizations. (Choose four.)
A. Office Site
B. Item Master
C. Warehouse
D. Inspection Dock
E. Distribution Center
F. Manufacturing Site
G. Human Resources
H. Receiving Location
Answer: BCEF
62. You are required to transact an interorganization transfer for Item A.
Before the transfer, you must determine and define_____.
A. planning lead times
B. material ownership during transfers
C. a shipping network between the organizations
D. the general ledger accounts to be used in transit
Answer: C
63. At which level can costing methods, such as Standard Costing or Average Costing (Moving Average
costing), be controlled in an inventory organization?
1. individual item level
2. subinventory level
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3. inventory organization level
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1 and 2
F. 2 and 3
G. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
64. Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is
driven below zero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from
driving inventory levels below zero.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= No.
B. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= Yes.
C. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for
Backflush = No.
D. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for
Backflush = Yes.
Answer: B
65. Your client has two inventory organizations (INV ORG 1 and INV ORG 2). The organizations have
different business requirements for stock locator control:
INV ORG 1:
Locators must have:
Building identified
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Stockroom designated
Row
Rack
Bin
INV ORG 2:
Locators must have:
Row
Rack
Bin
Position within Bin
Which solution would meet both organizations’ requirements?
A. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can use the first segment as Row.
B. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 2 can use DFF for Position within Bin.
C. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can leave the fifth segment with a
default valuE.
D. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 1 can create DFF and use that as
Building identifier.
E. Establish stock locator flexfields as six segments. INV ORG 1 can create locators where the sixth
segment can be a default valuE.
Answer: C
66. Company ABC is using serialization in all organizations that manage inventory. It wants each
organization to determine the proper levels of serial control. The products in each organization are
completely different, so having the same serial numbers on different products is acceptablE.
The only global requirement is that serial numbers be generated in advance, to prevent incorrect serial
number types from being createD. Using the table below, choose the cell that represents the correct
parameter and attribute combination to meet Company ABC’s needs.
A. B
B. C
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C. F
D. H
E. K
F. L
Answer: A
67. A customer is in the process of setting up a warehouse in the Oracle system. The customer wants
the whole warehouse to be a subinventory with the following requirements:
1) Have bins in the warehouse to store material.
2) Track some high-dollar items by quantity and the bin in which they residE.
3) Track low-dollar parts, such as nuts and bolts, by quantity, but the customer does not want the
overhead of specifying the bin in which they should residE.
What would you do to meet this requirement?
A. Set up the subinventory with Locator Control set to PrespecifieD.
B. Set up the subinventory with Locator Control set to Dynamic Entry.
C. Set up the subinventory with Locator Control set to Item Level control; for items that should be tracked
by bin, set Locator Control to NonE.
D. Set up the subinventory with Locator Control set to Item Level control; for items that should be tracked
by bin, set Locator Control to Dynamic Entry.
Answer: D
68. You are working on setting up subinventories for the client’s organization. The client wants to call the
subinventory DAYTONS-20STOCKROOM. The system does not let you create this subinventory.
What is the problem?
A. The subinventory name cannot have the – sign.
B. The subinventory name cannot have numbers in it.
C. The subinventory name cannot have an apostrophE.
D. The subinventory name cannot be longer than 10 characters.
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Answer: D
69. You are defining the staging subinventory for your sales order pick release rulE.
Which flag should be enabled (checked) for the rule to work properly?
A. Nettable
B. Depreciable
C. Locator Alias
D. Asset Subinventory
E. Allow Reservations
F. PAR (Periodic Automatic Replenishment) Level Planning
Answer: E
70. Which two statements about the Stock Locators flexfield are true? (Choose two.)
A. Stock Locators is set up as a key flexfielD.
B. Stock Locators is set up as a descriptive flexfielD.
C. You cannot have a . character in your locator namE.
D. You have to use the same value set for all the segments of the Stock Locators flexfielD.
E. You have the flexibility to set up segments of the Stock Locators as mandatory or not mandatory.
Answer: AE
71. Your client wants approvals for Move Orders to occur after 30 days.
Based on the Move Order approval workflow, how would you enter the values for Move Order Timeout
Period and Move Order Timeout Action?
A. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Reject Automatically
B. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Reject Automatically
C. Timeout Period = 0, Action = Approve Automatically
D. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Approve Automatically
E. Timeout Period = 10, Action = Approve Automatically
F. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Approve Automatically
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Answer: F
72. There is a region called Inter-Organization Transfer Accounts in the Organization Parameters form,
on the Inter-Organization taB.
What is the meaning of the “Payables” field in this region?
A. The default general ledger account that is used to collect transfer charges when this
organization is the shipping organization. This is usually an expense account.
B. The default general ledger account that is used to hold intransit inventory valuE. This is
usually an asset account. For average cost organizations, this account is the default
material account.
C. The default general ledger account that is used to collect the purchase price variance for
interorganization receipts into standard cost organizations. This is usually an expense
account.
D. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when
this organization is the shipping organization. This is usually an asset account.
E. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when
Answer: E
73. Company X has a single Inventory Organization. It wants to monitor aged material. Specifically, it
needs to ensure that its products have the most current calibration.
Profile Option INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date has two selections.
Which selection is correct?
A. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is lost upon issuE.
B. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is
picked for shippinG.
C. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is
issued out of inventory.
D. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is retained until new inventory is
positioned in the same locator.
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E. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is
moved to nonnettable subinventory.
Answer: C
74. Profile options can be either required or optional. All required options must have a valuE.
Which two profile options are required when setting up Oracle Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. INV: Validate Returned Lot
B. INV: Accounting Category Set
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials
D. INV: Default Primary unit of measure
E. INV: Replenishment Move Order Grouping
Answer: BD
75. Evaluate the settings below:
From To Transfer Type FOB Receipt Routing
Org 1 Org 2 Intransit Receipt Direct
Org 2 Org 1 Intransit Shipment Standard
At what point would ownership transfers occur during shipments between the organizations?
A. As soon as Org 1 performs Ship Confirm, ownership is transferred to Org 2 immediately.
B. Both organizations own the material upon receipt only because Transit Type is Intransit.
C. When shipping from Org 1 to Org 2, Org 1 owns the material until Org 2 processes a receipt against
shipment number.
D. When shipping from Org 2 to Org 1, ownership changes, and Org 2 owns the material until Org 1
processes a receipt against shipment number.
Answer: A
76. Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations
(SO).
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The company has defined shipping networks based on these policies:
Inventory Organizations within an Operating Unit (OU) can perform shipments to the Sales
Organizations only within the same OU.
An Inventory Organization can ship to any other Inventory Organization in the company.
The only exception to the rule is China, which can ship to any US organization.
Which sites can IO 3 ship to?
A. IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
B. IO 1, IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5
C. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
D. IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3
E. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 1, SO 2, SO 3
Answer: C
77. Your client is using Oracle Inventory without Warehouse Management System (WMS). It wants to
establish control for several pieces of equipment using the Warehouse Control System (WCS) featurE.
What is the solution?
A. Enable WCS and run the appropriate concurrent program.
B. Create separate interfaces for each piece of equipment.
C. Create one interface that includes all pieces of equipment.
D. You cannot satisfy this requirement because WCS has to be used with WMS.
E. Enabling WCS is not necessary to meet this requirement; this can be done using third-party softwarE.
Answer: D
78. What is the correct sequence when defining Units of Measure (UOM)?
A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions
B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM
C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM
D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class
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E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions
Answer: A
79. A purchase order is created for item A with UOM = BX (box).
The primary UOM = PK (pack) and the secondary UOM is BX.
A shipment arrives for 12 boxes.
The UOM conversion is 1 BX = 10 PK.
Which UOM should the receiver use, and how would the inventory on-hand (OH) change?
A. Receive 120 PK. This is the primary UOM and should be used for receipt.
B. Receive 12 PK. Conversion would occur after receipt. OH would show 120 PK.
C. Receive 12 BX. OH would be updated with primary UOM and would increase by 120 PK.
D. Receive 12 BX. OH would not be converted; actual UOM would be useD. OH would be updated with
12 BX.
Answer: C
80. You define a UOM Class for VolumE.
Which grouping represents the Volume class?
A. Liter, gallon, milliliter, pint
B. Kilometer, meter, mile, yard
C. Liter, milliliter, kilometer, meter
D. Liter, gallon, milliliter, centimeter
E. Kilometer, meter, cubic yard, cubic meter
F. Kilometer, meter, centimeter, cubic centimeter
Answer: A
81. You have an item that has four different units of measure (UOMs) defined for usagE. They are
Each, Pack, Box, and CasE.
1 Pack = 24 Each
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2 Packs = 1 Box
4 Boxes = 1 Case
What conversions need to be established to accommodate these four relationships?
A. Each =1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 24 Each, 1 Case = 96 Each
B. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 192 Each
C. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 168 Each
D. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 240 Each, 1 Case = 240 Each
E. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 12 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case =1920 Each
F. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case = 1920 Each
Answer: B
82. Which two statements are true regarding lot-based unit of measure (UOM) conversions? (Choose
two.)
A. You cannot update existing on-hand balances for lot-based UOM conversions.
B. You can create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balancE.
C. You cannot create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balancE.
D. During a PO receipt, the lot-based conversion cannot be updated if the lot does not match existing
conversion rates.
E. Updating the on-hand balance on a lot-based UOM conversion requires a cycle count transaction with
the lot number provided in the count recorD.
Answer: BD
83. ABC Company has one distribution center and one manufacturing plant. Both the distribution center
and manufacturing plant have identical items that are specific to their organization. You are required to
design the item repository structure for both organizations.
What is your recommendation for the item repository structure?
A. Create two master organizations, one for the distribution center and the other for the manufacturing
plant.
B. There is no need for an item master organization. The distribution center and manufacturing plant
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items are loaded in two organization items.
C. Set it up so that manufacturing plant items are loaded in the item master organization and distribution
center items are loaded in organization items.
D. Set it up so that distribution center items are loaded in the item master organization and
manufacturing plant items are loaded in organization items.
E. Create one item master that holds both distribution center and manufacturing plant items. Assign the
respective master item to the distribution center and manufacturing plants.
Answer: E
84. Vision Corporation is a semiconductor discrete manufacturing organization. It has its own
manufacturing and distribution centers located globally.
It has these operating units:
US – USA operating unit
CAN – Canadian operating unit
UK – UK operating unit
MX – Mexican operating unit
IND – India operating unit
SPA -Spain operating unit
FRA – France operating unit
NL – Netherlands operating Unit
GER – Germany operating unit
These are the inventory organizations that exist in each operating unit:
Inventory Org – Operating unit
——————————————–
VC (Master Org) – US
US1 (Child Org) – US
US2 (Child Org) – US
CA1 (Child Org) – CAN
MX1 (Child Org) – MX
IN1 (Child Org) – IND
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SP1 (Child Org) – SPA
FR1 (Child Org) – FRA
NL1 (Child Org) – NL
GE1 (Child Org) – GER
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Master organization VC cannot be shared across operating units.
B. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across operating units.
C. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same operating unit to assign items.
D. You can define an item in IN1 inventory organization and assign it to GE1 inventory organization.
E. Items defined in VC organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory
organizations.
Answer: CE
85. The materials manager has noticed that several items were created and assigned to various
inventory organizations, but the analyst skipped the Copy from Template step. The manager would like
to know how to correct the items.
Which three statements are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Apply the template in the organization item. It would automatically update the Master Item window.
B. You can use the Item Attribute Copy form to update the value of an item attribute across multiple
organizations in a given organization hierarchy.
C. You can change an organization-level attribute with the Master Item window. If you do this, it will
update the organization-level attribute across all organizations.
D. You can use the Organization Item window to update organization-level item attributes. This would
update organization-level attributes in your current organization only.
E. To update master-level attributes, use the Master Item window. If an attribute is controlled at the
master level, the value of the attribute applies for all organizations to which the item is assigneD.
Answer: BDE
86. The following table shows the values for quantity variance and adjustment value tolerances for an
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item in a cycle count:
Item Attribute Values are:
Item Standard Cost = $10.00
Positive Quantity Variance – Tolerance 5%
Negative Quantity Variance – Tolerance 10%
Positive Adjustment Value – Tolerance $200
Negative Adjustment Value – Tolerance $250
Given that the system count is 100, which value needs an approval for both Positive Quantity Variance
and Positive Adjustment Value?
A. The count quantity equals 73.
B. The count quantity equals 88.
C. The count quantity equals 106.
D. The count quantity equals 122.
E. The count quantity equals 120.
Answer: D
87. Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose threE. )
A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.
B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.
C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master
organization.
D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or
organization level.
E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other
organizations while transacting on an item.
F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or
organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.
Answer: BDE
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88. Company ABC has a factory that is set up as an inventory organization with several subinventories.
Each of the subinventories has locators. The factory purchases material using a purchase order. The
person who receives the purchase order does not know which subinventory and locator the material
needs to go to.
ABC wants the subinventory and locator to be automatically populated for that item.
Which option would solve the problem?
A. Populate the completion subinventory and locator on the routing for that item.
B. Use the restrict subinventory and restrict locator flag on the Item Master record of that item.
C. Populate the supply subinventory and locator fields on the Item Master record for the purchased item.
D. Use the Item Transactions Default form to create default subinventory and locators for the purchased
item.
Answer: D
89. There are no interdependent attributes. Which three statements are true about defining an item using
a template? (Choose threE. )
A. You can apply multiple templates to an item.
B. A template can be applied only at the master organization level.
C. A template can be applied at the master or child organization levels.
D. Modifying an item template would automatically update the items that were previously defined using
that templatE.
E. Template application is exclusivE. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would not
retain any values of the prior templatE.
F. A template applied to a master item, which has already been assigned to a child organization, can still
update the organization-controlled item.
G. Template application is additivE. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would retain the
values of all the attributes that were not enabled by the second templatE.
Answer: ACG
90. You applied a subassembly template for an item at the master level. Four main attributes of the
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subassembly template are:
- primary unit of measure (UOM): EA
- minimum order quantity
- maximum order quantity: 10
- fixed lead time: 2
After applying the template, you find that the attributes are not correct. You correct the template with
these attributes:
- primary UOM: LB
- minimum order quantity: 7
- maximum order quantity: 12
- fixed lead time: 4
You reapply the templatE.
Which attributes are updated in the item?
A. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4
B. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 2
C. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 4
D. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4
E. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 2
Answer: D
91. You are defining a template by choosing contradictory item attributes (for example, stockable
enabled, inventory item disabled, and so on).
How would the system respond?
A. The system automatically corrects the item attribute setting during template creation.
B. The system would validate contradictory item attributes. Warning messages would appear while
saving the item templatE.
C. The system would not validate contradictory item attributes during template creation or while applying
the template to the item.
D. The system would not validate contradictory item attribute settings in the template window. Validation
occurs while applying the template to the item.
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E. The system would not validate contradictory item attribute settings during template creation. It would
automatically correct the attribute settings while applying the template to the item.
Answer: D
92. Your customer has two manufacturing plants. The manufacturing process for both the plants is
identical, but there are differences in specific areas.
1. Plant 1 uses Min-Max planning and Plant 2 uses Re-order Point planninG.
2. Plant 1 and Plant 2′s Variable Lead Times are different.
3. Plant 1 and Plant 2 use two different WIP (Work In Process) supply subinventories.
Which two attribute control settings meet the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Organization Level: WIP Supply Subinventory
B. Organization Level: Variable Lead Time, WIP Supply Subinventory
C. Master Level: Transactable, Inventory Planning Method, Variable Lead Time
D. Master Level: Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP Organization Level: Inventory Planning Method
E. Master Level: WIP Supply Subinventory, Variable Lead Time, Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP
F. Master Level: Stockable, Variable Lead Time, Inventory Planning Method Organization Level:
Transactable
Answer: BD
93. You are implementing the inventory module for a chemical manufacturing customer. They have only
one organization that performs manufacturing as well as order processinG.
Which four attributes control the functionality of an item? (Choose four.)
A. Purchased
B. Inventory Item
C. Recipe Enabled
D. Internal Ordered
E. Costing Enabled
F. Engineering Item
G. MRP Planning Method
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H. Internal Orders Enabled
I.Customer Ordered Item
J.Customer Orders Enabled
K.Process Execution Enabled
Answer: CHJK
94. Your customer is interested in implementing revision control for the finished goods model items.
Which two requirements can be met by implementing revision control? (Choose two.)
A. changing model functionality when on-hand quantity is available
B. tracking design changes in other modules (BOM, Work In Process) with a different model number
C. scrapping the old model and introducing a new model which has changes in functionality and features
D. accommodating a slight design change in the model, where functionality and features remain the
same
E. tracking design changes in all other functions, such as Bill of Materials, Routings, Work in Process,
and so on, using the same model number
Answer: DE
95. XYZ is a metal fabrication company. It wants to classify all metals and plastics into two major groups.
There are many subgroups in metals and plastics. All the subgroups are linked to their major group. This
group classification is extensively used in all the reports in the organization.
Which Oracle functionality can meet the above requirement?
A. Catalogs
B. Categories
C. Catalog and Categories
D. Category Set and Categories
E. Group key flexfield enabled in the reports
F. Group descriptive flexfield enabled in the reports
Answer: D
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96. You are implementing the inventory module for XYZ Shoe Manufacturing Company (XYZ).
XYZ wants to identify the finished goods (FG) items based on two major item characteristics: shoe size
and color. The company wants to capture all the FG item descriptions with these two characteristics.
Which feature is used to capture the item characteristics and control it in the item description?
A. Categories
B. Item catalogs
C. Item key flexfield
D. Item descriptive flexfield
E. Category Set and Categories
Answer: B
97. You would set up the profile option INV: Item Master Flexfield _____.
A. for items from legacy system referenced in this field
B. in the initial setup on inventory for defaulting purpose
C. to capture the item descriptive information on this field
D. to indicate which flexfield is used to define items in MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS
E. for first time setup of the item master flexfield to denote the key flexfield compiled
Answer: D
98. What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Override Neg for Backflush = Yes?
A. It would not allow inventory to be driven negativE.
B. Backflush transactions would drive inventory negativE.
C. Backflush transactions would not drive inventory negativE.
D. Backflush and inventory transactions would drive inventory negativE.
E. Backflush and inventory transactions would not drive inventory negativE.
F. It would permit the driving of on-hand inventory negative for miscellaneous issue transactions.
Answer: B
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99. What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Updateable Item Name = Yes?
A. You would be able to update the item name at any point in timE.
B. You would be able to update the item name after the initial/first-time savE.
C. You would be able to update the item name even after many transactions.
D. You would be able to update both the item name and description after many transactions.
E. You would be able to update the item name multiple times after the initial save and before
transactions.
Answer: B
100. A beverage manufacturing company wants to view the on-hand stock of soda in liters. For all the
shipping transactions, it wants to track the soda quantity in cartons and liters.
What type of unit of measure (UOM) setup is required to meet this requirement?
A. Enable only the primary unit of measurE.
B. Enable primary and pricing units of measurE.
C. Enable intraclass conversion at the organization level.
D. Enable interclass conversion at the organization level.
E. Set tracking UOM to primary and secondary at the item level.
F. An item stocked in liter cannot show in carton during shipment.
Answer: E
101. Your customer sets up an item with the wrong primary unit of measure (UOM) and transacts for a
couple of years. Now the customer realizes that the unit of measure setup was incorrect.
How can you correct the UOM after transactions have been made?
A. You can change the UOM easily in the organization items.
B. You cannot correct the primary UOM for the item after transactions.
C. You can easily correct the primary UOM by changing the value in the item master.
D. You can delete items using delete group and create the item again using the correct primary UOM.
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Answer: B
102. Your customer has intelligence built into the item-naming convention. Each code in the item has a
certain meaninG.
For example: 01100200
01 – Business Group
100 – Division
200 – Product
The customer does not want to take the chance of adding a wrong product to a wrong division. How do
you implement this?
A. The item code can be validated through Item Folders.
B. Enable the item descriptive flexfield to capture item segment information.
C. Capture the item-naming convention information in each item description.
D. Enable the item key flexfield for each segment in system items and the cross-validation rules.
Answer: D
103. Your client manufactures and sells material from four different manufacturing locations. The client
has these requirements:
Requirement 1:
When a customer calls to return a product, the client needs to know which plant produced the material.
Requirement 2:
Product manufactured within a plant needs to be tracked uniquely.
Which criteria would meet the clients needs?
A. Set up lot control at the organization level and use a prefix.
B. Set up lot control at the item level and use a prefix for the lot number.
C. Create one locator for each product and produce the item to that locator.
D. Create part numbers for each customer to know which part number is ordereD.
Answer: A
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104. Which three statements are true when disabling lots? (Choose threE. )
A. Lots are included as on-hand availability in reports.
B. Lots are not included as on-hand availability in reports.
C. Lots do not appear in the list of values during receipt transactions.
D. Lots appear in the list of values for receipts and all other transactions.
E. Lots are considered as on-hand supply when you perform min-max or re-order point planninG.
F. Lots are not considered as on-hand supply when you perform min-max or re-order point planninG.
G. Lots are not included in Available To Promise, Available To Reserve, and Available To Transact
calculations.
Answer: ACE
105. The Child Lots check box is enabled at the organization item level. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The lot splitting process is enabled by this featurE.
B. The system would maintain lot genealogy with child and parent lots.
C. Child lot characteristics are completely different from that of parent lots.
D. Child lots are unique and independent lots. They are not linked with parent lots.
E. Short expiry lots are child lots. Child lots generate unique numbers across items.
F. Child lots are a subdivision of the parent lots and maintain integrity with the parent lots.
Answer: BF
106. The Copy Lot Attributes checkbox is enabled at the organization item level. Which two statements
are true? (Choose two.)
A. This feature is specific to child lots.
B. This feature is specific to parent lots.
C. Lot attributes are copied between child lots.
D. Parent lot inherits the lot attributes of the chilD.
E. Child lots inherit the attributes of the parent lot.
F. Lot attributes are copied from parent to parent lot.
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G. The feature is applicable to both child and parent lots.
H. Lot attributes are copied from the child to the parent lot.
Answer: AE
107. XYZ company scheduled receipt from a vendor on a weekly basis. Each batch received from the
vendor has fixed shelf life days. XYZ company’s requirements are:
1. Manual entry of shelf life days should not be allowed during the receipt.
2. The system should calculate the expiry date by considering the shelf life days and the receipt datE.
What is the correct setup or process to meet the above requirement?
A. Enable grade control to calculate the expiry date automatically.
B. Enable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the organization item level.
C. Disable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the organization item level.
D. Enable grade control. Disable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the item level.
E. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days at the subinventory.
Answer: B
108. Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.
A. can be reserved
B. are not allowed to do subinventory transfer
C. are not included in inventory valuation reports
D. cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantities
E. are not included in cycle and physical counting adjustments
F. are not considered as on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning
Answer: F
109. You are implementing Oracle Inventory for XYZ Motor Mfg (XYZ). XYZ want to track all the motors
shipped to customer ABC. They would like to generate and assign a unique number for each motor
during the sales order shipment. This would be useful for them to track the motors easily during the
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return process.
What is the setup or process to achieve this objective?
A. Enable lot control at the item level. Prefix the lot with AB and ship those lots to ABC customer.
B. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation at
receipt.
C. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation as
no control.
D. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation as
predefineD.
E. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation at
the sales order issuE.
Answer: E
110. Your customer has two manufacturing plants. Plant1 reuses serial numbers across all items. Plant2
requires unique serial numbers across all items in the Plant2 enterprisE.
Which type of serial control setup meets the requirement?
A. Plant1: within an organization, Plant2: across organization
B. Plant1: within inventory items, Plant2: across organization
C. Plant1: across organization, Plant2: within an organization
D. Plant1: across organization, Plant2: within inventory items
E. Plant1: within an organization, Plant2: within inventory items
F. Plant1: within inventory items, Plant2: within an organization
Answer: F
111. Your customer completes two discrete jobs. Each job completes with a quantity of 100.
After job completion, the business user found that 10 components used in Job1 were baD. All the
components are serial-controlled items. Job1 reopened so that they could return the WIP Component for
the 10 quantities back to inventory.
The list of values (LOV) shows all the serial numbers irrespective of the component used in the specific
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discrete joB.
Which setup or process would restrict the component serial numbers specific to their discrete job from
appearing in the LOV that is used?
A. Setup INV: Genealogy Delimited: Yes
B. Setup INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. Setup INV: Restrict Receipt of Serial: Yes
D. Serial Control at the item level: Predefined
E. Serial number assigned during WIP completion
F. Serial number assigned during WIP assembly return
G. The system automatically defaults the serial numbers respective to their discrete jobs.
Answer: B
112. ABC company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1. Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which
setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C
113. ABC is a laptop manufacturing company. On an average, the company completes 10 discrete jobs
daily. ABC has the following requirements:
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1. When the customer returns the laptop, ABC should be in a position to identify the laptop’s
manufacture date and batch number.
2. Each laptop should be identified with a unique number and this should be tagged with the batch
number.
3.When a customer returns a laptop, ABC decides whether it can replace it with a new laptop or repair it,
by considering the age of the laptop. ABC needs to identify the aging period of the laptop.
Which setup would meet the above requirements?
A. Using the discrete job form, the manufactured date and batch number can be identifieD.
B. Enable lot and serial control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.
C. Enable parent lot and child lots at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.
D. Enable parent lot and grade control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.
E. Enable lot control at the organization item level. Set up uniqueness within inventory items in the
organization parameters.
Answer: B
114. XYZ is a food processing plant. It wants its system to show a warning message after a product
becomes expireD. The warning message should also explain what action needs to be taken on the
expired lot.
Which setup would achieve this requirement?
A. Enable lot and serial control. Enter the shelf life days at the item level.
B. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days and retest interval.
C. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, retest interval and hold days.
D. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, “expiration action” code and hold days.
E. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, expiration action interval and hold days.
F. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days. Assign the “expiration action” code to the
particular item.
Answer: F
115. Before material transactions can begin, you must create the environment for the transactions.
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Which three activities must be completed before transactions can begin? (Choose threE. )
A. Define subinventory and locator defaults.
B. Define shipping subinventory and locators.
C. Define receiving subinventory and locators.
D. Define all locators to be transacted against.
E. Define transaction source types that are used with transaction types.
F. Define transaction types that identify the types of transactions that can be performeD.
Answer: AEF
116. Production creates a move order requisition and specifies a subinventory as a sourcE. This
subinventory has insufficient quantity on-hand, but another subinventory has plenty availablE.
What would happen when allocating the move order?
A. Allocations would only be created in the subinventory where there is full available on-hanD.
B. NothinG. Without sufficient quantity in the source subinventory, allocation would not be createD.
C. Partial allocation for source subinventory is createD. The remaining requested quantity is canceleD.
D. Partial allocation for source subinventory is createD. The balance of the requested quantity is not
allocateD.
E. Partial allocation for source subinventory is createD. The remaining allocation would be created in
the available subinventory.
Answer: D
117. Company XYZ has portable bar code readers that are used to scan and read data regarding the
amount of time charged on a resource that has been utilized on the manufacturing floor.
This data about utilization is then processed in the Oracle Work in Process module by using a _____.
A. concurrent manager
B. cost transaction manager
C. move transaction manager
D. material transaction manager
E. lot move transaction manager
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Answer: E
118. Which three statements are true regarding inventory transactions? (Choose threE. )
A. The user can define new source types.
B. The user can define new transaction actions.
C. Transaction types are used to classify a transaction for reporting and querying purposes.
D. A transaction source type is the combination of a transaction type and a transaction action.
E. Transaction types identify certain transactions to be included in historical usage calculations for ABC
analysis or forecastinG.
Answer: ACE
119. Which statement is true regarding inventory transactions?
A. Transaction reasons can be used in all transaction forms.
B. Work in Process would not affect inventory transactions.
C. Inventory adjustments are not part of inventory transactions.
D. You can designate, by transaction type, which transaction reasons are availablE.
E. You must create at least one user-defined transaction reason for each inventory organization.
Answer: A
120. You completed an inventory transaction and a work-in-process transaction. Then you checked the
on-hand quantity and found that both the inventory and work-in-process transactions were not
processeD.
Which manager is responsible for processing quantity-based transactions?
A. cost transaction manager
B. move transaction manager
C. material transaction manager
D. lot move transaction manager
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Answer: C
121. Which three actions are performed using picking rules? (Choose threE. )
A. Restrict subinventories from being allocated against.
B. Place locators on hold if the on-hand quantity is not correct.
C. Remove a locator from hold if required during allocation process.
D. Create new transaction type if demand requires a unique picking situation.
E. Control whether allocations can occur for a quantity less than the total availablE.
F. Control whether allocations can occur for single lots only or across multiple lots.
Answer: AEF
122. For which three transaction types can picking rules be created? (Choose threE. )
A. PO Receipt
B. Sales Order
C. Cycle Count
D. Work-in-process jobs
E. Miscellaneous Receipt
F. Move Order Replenishment
G. Physical Inventory Adjustment
Answer: BDF
123. Company XYZ manufactures three different types of PC monitors.
Type 1 is a unique requirement for the local college called Northern CollegE.
Shipments of Type 1 to other customers are not alloweD.
This item is stored only in a subinventory called MODEL 1.
Other models are also stored in this same subinventory.
The other two types (Type 2 and Type 3) can be shipped to any other customer, including Northern
CollegE.
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Which conditions are mandatory for the Picking rule (rule) to meet these requirements?
A. Transaction type of Sales Order. Rule assigned to Northern CollegE.
B. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to customer Northern CollegE.
C. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and customer as Northern CollegE.
D. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and transaction type as Sales Order.
E. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, transaction type as Sales Order, and customer
Northern CollegE.
Answer: E
124. The Account Alias Name flexfield cannot exceed _____ characters.
A. 20
B. 15
C. 25
D. 30
E. 45
F. 180
Answer: C
125. Which two statements are true when performing an Account Alias Receipt? (Choose two.)
A. The alias names can be defined by the user.
B. The alias transaction would go through the workflow approval process.
C. Account alias transactions require two events: first Entry, then Transact.
D. The General Ledger account linked to the Account Alias is required to be ActivE.
E. Account Alias Receipt transactions would always be considered an inventory adjustment.
F. Account Alias Receipt transactions can dynamically create a new receipt if the General Ledger
account is provideD.
Answer: AD
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126. Your client does not want to implement account alias issues or receipts.
When performing setups, what should you do about the account alias flexfield?
A. Define segments, but do not compilE.
B. Create at least one alias, compile, then disable the alias.
C. Ignore the account alias flexfield because it would not be requireD.
D. Compile the flexfield structure because it is required by Oracle Inventory.
E. Define default account aliases that can be used at a later date, but ensure they are disabled now.
Answer: D
127. You are setting up a move order requisition for which approval is requireD. At the organization
level, you have defined the following:
1) Move Order Timeout Period
2) Move Order Timeout Action
However, the approval process is not enabled for the organization item. What is the reason?
A. A planner has not been assigned to the organization item.
B. The subinventory source type has not been set to Pull Level.
C. The Move Order Timeout Action has been set to a value greater than zero.
D. The Move Order Timeout Period has been set to a value greater than zero.
Answer: A
128. You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planninG.
To enable that functionality, you would need to define the ____.
A. subinventory supply source type at the pull level
B. Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zero
C. Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zero
D. subinventory supply source type at the subinventory or item level
Answer: D
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129. Your customer wants to create move orders automatically using Kanban system.
Which setup should be enabled to achieve this?
A. Subinventory source type at the item level.
B. Master Item source type at the pull sequence level.
C. Organization source type at the pull sequence level.
D. Subinventory source type at the pull sequence level.
E. Organization item source type at the pull sequence level.
Answer: D
130. ABC company closed the accounting period for the month of October. Their current inventory
accounting period is November and all their day-to-day transactions fall under the November perioD.
The goods were physically received on Oct 26th, but the details were not entered into the system. On
Nov 5th, they found a missing receipt transaction for Oct 26tH.
The business user then tried to enter the missing receipt on Nov 5th with the transaction date of Oct
26tH.
How would the system respond?
A. The system would post the transaction with the date of Oct 26tH.
B. If they adjust the closed period tolerances, the system would allow them to post the transaction.
C. The system would not allow the transaction to be posted because Oct 26th is in a closed perioD.
D. If they reopen the inventory accounting period, the system would allow them to post the transaction.
E. A warning message would appear because the period is closeD. They can override it and post the
transaction.
Answer: C
131. Which three modules use the inventory calendar for considering working days and holidays?
(Choose threE. )
A. Oracle Planning
B. Oracle Inventory
C. Oracle Payables
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D. Oracle Bill of Materials
E. Oracle General Ledger
Answer: ABD
132. Your customer is planning to close the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the
customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form.
Which form would provide this information?
A. Pending Status
B. View Material Transactions
C. Find Pending Transactions
D. Transaction Open Interface
E. Inventory Accounting Period
Answer: E
133. Which three values are applicable for the transaction profile option Miscellaneous Issue and
Receipt? (Choose threE. )
A. Online Processing
B. Concurrent Processing
C. Form-Level Processing
D. Background Processing
E. Record-Level Processing
Answer: ABD
134. You created an internal requisition to move material between two organizations. The destination is
locator controlleD. The shipping network between these two locations has been defined as Direct. The
shipment transaction fails.
What could be the reason for the failure?
A. Locator default has not been set up in the transaction default.
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B. Internal requisitions cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.
C. You did not indicate the locator of the destination on the requisition.
D. Locator-controlled destinations cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.
Answer: A
135. For which four purposes can Miscellaneous transactions be used? (Choose four.)
A. cycle-count adjustment
B. to receive against an RMA
C. Physical Inventory adjustment
D. to ship items for a sales order
E. to decrement on-hand balances from a subinventory
F. to adjust inventory quantity within an inventory organization
G. to transfer inventory quantity across inventory organizations
Answer: ACEF
136. ABC InC. has its inventory organizations located across the globE. Finished goods are
transferred between organizations before they are shipped to the local customers.
ABC has these requirements:
1. Transfer needs to be done by in-transit timE.
2. In-transit transfer charges are involveD.
3. Each shipping method has its own in-transit timE.
For these requirements, which three are valid considerations or setup steps? (Choose threE. )
A. Use interorganization transfer accounts.
B. Use the Direct transfer type in the shipping network.
C. In-transit time for different ship methods cannot be set.
D. Set up a shipping network between the inventory organizations.
E. Assign transfer distance with transfer charges in the shipping network.
Answer: ADE
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137. ABC Corporation has its inventory organizations located in North America, Asia, and EuropE.
North America Inventory Organizations:
Boston Manufacturing, Seattle Manufacturing, and Denver Manufacturing
Europe Inventory Organizations:
The Netherlands, France, Germany, and Belgium
Asia Inventory Organizations:
India, Singapore, and Malaysia
The North America manufacturing organizations are the source of material to the Netherlands and AsiA.
For the Europe inventory organizations, the inventory is sourced from the Netherlands organization.
Select all the networks that need to be set up to meet this requirement. (Choose all that apply.)
A. between all the European organizations
B. all the European organizations with all the Asian organizations
C. the Netherlands organization with all the other European organizations
D. all the North America Inventory organizations with the Netherlands organization
E. all the North America Inventory organizations with all the Asian organizations
F. all the North America Inventory organizations with all the European organizations
Answer: CDE
138. Which two statements are true about the Managing Shipments process? (Choose two.)
A. You can update information pertaining to the shipment header and the shipment lines.
B. You can access all incoming and outgoing in-transit shipments between inventory organizations
associated with the current organization.
C. In-transit shipment between inventory organizations must use the receipt routing specified at the item,
organization, or system level.
D. If you change the Expected Receipt date, you can control whether Purchasing updates Shipment
Supply to reflect the new due datE.
Answer: AB
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139. The warehouse has received new stock from an internal distribution warehousE.
Which two receiving transactions can be used to put stock into the warehouse’s inventory using the
Intransit Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. Direct Receipt
B. Standard Receipt and Delivery
C. Inter organization Direct Receipt
D. Inter organization Receipt and Delivery
E. Inter organization Miscellaneous Receipt
Answer: CD
140. Select two conditions which will permit the transfer of lot-controlled items between inventory
organizations. (Choose two.)
A. Item is lot-controlled at the subinventory level.
B. Item is lot-controlled in either the shipping or receiving organizations.
C. Item is lot-controlled in both the shipping and receiving organizations.
D. Item is lot-controlled in the receiving organization, but not the shipping organization.
E. Item is lot-controlled in the shipping organization, but not the receiving organization.
Answer: CE
141. Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All items are
manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other
operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in
different operating units.
All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization’s standard cost plus a transfer
charge percentagE.
Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to
correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose
threE. )
A. Define an Intercompany Price List.
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B. Define the correct unit of measure conversions for Dual UoM.
C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.
D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.
E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.
F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.
G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.
Answer: CEF
142. Your client uses Average Costing to value the items in the inventory.
A Miscellaneous Receipt transaction has been submitted for a quantity of 1 of an item.
What are the two possible values that could have been added to the Material Account by this transaction?
(Choose two.)
A. 1 x (User-entered Unit Cost)
B. 1 x (Current Average Unit Cost)
C. The transaction will not be costed until the next Cost Manager program is executeD.
D. 1 x (Average Cost Variance), calculated when the next Cost Manager program is executed
Answer: AB
143. Two Customer Service Representatives each book a sales order for an item that is revision and lot
controlleD. There are no other open, active sales orders for this item.
Each Customer Service Representative pick releases their order to the same warehouse independently.
The Pick Release Rule used by both includes Auto Allocation.
On the resulting Move Orders, Inventory has allocated all the requested quantity for one of the sales
orders, but only half the requested quantity on the second sales order was available to be allocateD.
Using the Transact Move Orders form, which action sequence can the warehouse person use to reduce
the allocation on the first Move Order so that both customer orders can be equally satisfied?
A. 1. View/Update Allocations;
2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriatE.
B. 1. View/Update Allocations;
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2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values;
3. Change the allocated Lot and Quantity values, as appropriatE.
C. 1. View/Update Allocations;
2. Change the allocated Lot and Quantity values, as appropriate;
3. Select the appropriate Missing Quantity Action.
D. 1. View/Update Allocations;
2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriate;
3. Change the Destination Subinventory.
Answer: C
144. Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose threE. )
A. Requisition and pick release orders are pre-approveD.
B. Replenishment and pick wave move orders are pre-approveD.
C. Requisition and pick release orders are pre-approved and require inspection.
D. If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approveD.
E. If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout
Period to 0 and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.
Answer: BDE
145. Identify three true statements about the use of the Material WorkbencH. (Choose threE. )
A. Authorized users can create move orders in the Material WorkbencH.
B. Authorized users can change material statuses in the Material WorkbencH.
C. Authorized users can perform miscellaneous issues in the Material WorkbencH.
D. Authorized users can perform miscellaneous receipts in the Material WorkbencH.
E. Authorized users can perform pick confirm transactions in the Material WorkbencH.
F. Authorized users can perform ship confirm transactions in the Material WorkbencH.
G. Authorized users can view material across organizations in the Material WorkbencH.
Answer: ABG
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146. What are the steps required to perform a Mass Issue for an item in the Material Workbench?
A. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material WorkbencH.
2) Select an approver for the list of values.
3) Enter the destination account.
4) Click OK.
B. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material WorkbencH.
2) Select Mass Issue from the Tools menu.
3) Select an approver for the list of values.
4) Enter the destination account.
5) Click OK.
C. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material WorkbencH.
2) Select Mass Issue from the Tools menu.
3) Select an approver for the list of values.
4) Click OK.
D. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material WorkbencH.
Answer: D
147. Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose threE. )
A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand sourcE.
B. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called high-level
reservation.
C. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called low-level reservation.
D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot be imported from
third-party applications.
E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and
represents a guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demand sourcE.
F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex
Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.
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G. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex
Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not negativE.
Answer: AEF
148. What two conditions prevent you from reserving the inventory? (Choose two.)
A. The inventory module is installed as ShareD.
B. The items have a nonreservable material status.
C. The inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.
D. The inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.
E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negativE.
Answer: BE
149. Select three statements that describe the reservation of Lot Indivisible Items. (Choose threE. )
A. Inventory automatically creates high-level reservations for lot indivisible items.
B. A lot level reservation must reserve the full lot quantity or place the lot on holD.
C. A lot level reservation must reserve the full lot quantity or disregard the entire lot.
D. When you set an item as lot indivisible, you must reserve the entire lot quantity.
E. When an indivisible lot exceeds the required lot quantity, you cannot select the lot for reservation, if it
surpasses the order tolerancE.
F. When an indivisible lot exceeds the required lot quantity, you can select the lot for reservation, if the
quantity is a multiple of the order quantity.
Answer: CDE
150. How can you create reservations for the material based on scheduled demand for a Complex
Maintenance Repair and Overhaul (CMRO) work order when the material does not exist in the on-hand
inventory?
A. CMRO work orders are not eligible for reservations.
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B. CMRO requires inventory on hand to support reservation.
C. CMRO creates reservation against a purchase order or any other supply sourcE.
D. CMRO creates a WIP job to make the material before you can create the reservation.
Answer: C
151. Identify four levels where item reservations can be madE. (Choose four.)
A. Project
B. Locator
C. Lot Number
D. Cost Group
E. Subinventory
F. Serial Number
G. Operating Unit
H. WIP Work Order
Answer: BCEF
152. When you view Item Supply and Demand Information on the Supply/Demand Detail form, Available
Quantity is ________.
A. the quantity on hand
B. the nettable quantity on hand
C. the reservable quantity on hand
D. the projected on-hand quantity of the item, defined as:
(all future sources of supply) – (all future sources of demand)
E. the projected on-hand quantity of the item, defined as:
Answer: E
153. Identify three valid sources of Inventory Supply. (Choose threE. )
A. Unapproved Move Orders
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B. Approved Requisition Lines
C. Miscellaneous Transactions
D. Approved Purchase Order Lines
E. Sales Order Lines in Entered status
F. WIP Work Orders in Released status
G. Sales Orders Lines in Scheduled status
Answer: BDF
154. Identify three valid sources of Inventory DemanD. (Choose threE. )
A. Approved Requisition Lines
B. Miscellaneous Transactions
C. Scheduled CMRO Work Orders
D. Approved Purchase Order Lines
E. Sales Order Lines in Entered status
F. WIP Work Orders in Released status
G. Sales Orders Lines in Scheduled status
Answer: CFG
155. Identify the purpose of using Material Status controls.
A. to permit updates to the Item Master record
B. to prevent unnecessary cycle counting in an inventory organization
C. to define the transactions that are permitted for an inventory organization
D. to select the transactions that are permitted to use the inventory on-hand quantity
Answer: D
156. Identify four elements of the inventory that can be assigned a Material Status. (Choose four.)
A. Lot
B. Serial
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C. Locator
D. Subinventory
E. Operating Unit.
F. Inventory Sub-ledger
G. Inventory Organization
Answer: ABCD
157. The serial number of an item is fully transactable and it is placed in a subinventory that has a
material status, which allows only subinventory transfers.
What is the cumulative effective status of the serial number?
A. The serial number is not transactablE.
B. The serial number is fully transactablE.
C. The serial number may be transferred to another inventory organization.
D. The serial number may be transferred to another subinventory in the same inventory organization.
Answer: D
158. Identify the two conditions required to enable material status control for a specific subinventory.
(Choose two.)
A. The subinventory must be designated as Quantity TrackeD.
B. The subinventory must be designated as Allow Reservation.
C. Transaction types must be enabled for material status control.
D. The subinventory must be designated as Asset Subinventory.
E. The subinventory must be assigned a material status that is enableD.
Answer: CE
159. Due to excessive customer returns, the client needs to prevent the reservation and subsequent
shipping to customers of a specific lot number for an item, pending a quality review.
Identify two conditions that will satisfy this requirement. (Choose two.)
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A. Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations.
B. Assign the lot a material status that only permits subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.
C. Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations, but only permits subinventory
transfers and issues to scrap.
D. Transfer the quantity on hand of the item to a subinventory that does not permit reservations, but only
permits subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.
Answer: CD
160. Identify the two statements that directly relate to material status control. (Choose two.)
A. A material status can be enabled or disabled as requireD.
B. The material status is defaulted when using Order Management.
C. A serial number can be assigned a status that excludes it from reservations.
D. A material status is a combination of transactions and planning actions that are alloweD.
E. If status control is not enabled for a transaction type, the transaction type is always alloweD.
Answer: DE
161. An item has its Lot Control attribute set to Full Control.
The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material
status control. This status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.
The subinventory where the item’s lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.
How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?
A. The transaction will be accepteD.
B. An error message will be generateD.
C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same
subinventory.
D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the
user.
Answer: A
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162. The inventory in storeroom A contains raw materials (purchased components) that are used in the
manufacture of completed assemblies. The assemblies are returned to storeroom A and they become
supply for the distribution warehouses B and C.
A, B, and C are independent inventory organizations.
Completed assemblies in warehouses B and C are sold in bulk to some customers and cases to others.
Spare parts for the completed assemblies are also available from storeroom A and are sent directly to
field service technicians, as requireD.
Identify two inventory set up activities that facilitate and control inventory transactions between the
storeroom and the warehouses. (Choose two.)
A. Define a material status that does not allow component items for sale to customers.
B. Define a material status that allows completed assemblies for shipment to field service technicians.
C. Define a material status for the subinventories in the storeroom that prevents interorganization
transfers to the warehouses.
D. Define a material status for component items assigned to the storeroom that prevents
interorganization transfers to the warehouses.
E. Define a material status for subinventories in the storeroom that only permits receipt from
manufacturing and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.
F. Define a material status for completed assemblies in the storeroom that only permits receipt from
manufacturing and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.
Answer: CE
163. The inventory in storeroom A contains raw material (purchased components) that are used in the
manufacture of completed assemblies on the shop floor, which are returned to storeroom A to become
supply for distribution warehouses B and C.
A, B, and C are independent inventory organizations.
Completed assemblies in warehouses B and C are sold in bulk to some customers and cases to others.
Spare parts for the completed assemblies are available from storeroom A and are sent directly to field
service technicians, as requireD. Field service technicians also receive completed assemblies from the
warehouses.
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Identify two inventory set up activities that facilitate and control the inventory transactions between the
inventory organizations and the field service technicians. (Choose two.)
A. Define a material status that does not allow component items for sale to customers.
B. Define a material status that allows completed assemblies for shipment to field service technicians.
C. Define a material status for the subinventories in the warehouses that also permits shipment to field
service technicians.
D. Define a material status for the spare parts subinventory in the storeroom that only permits shipment
to field service technicians.
E. Define a material status for completed assemblies in the storeroom that only permits receipt from
manufacturing and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.
Answer: CD
164. Select the true statement about Material Status Control.
A. The profile option “INV: Default Item Status” must be set to Active at the site level to enforce Material
Status Control.
B. The profile option “INV: Material Status Support” must be set to Yes at the site level to enforce
Material Status Control.
C. The profile option “INV: Transaction Reasons Security” must be set to Yes at the site level to enforce
Material Status Control.
D. The profile option “INV: Allow Expense to Asset Transfer” must be set to Yes at the application level to
enforce Material Status Control.
Answer: B
165. ACME requires multiple roles to satisfy the needs of customer service representatives (CSRs),
warehouse staff, and shipping stafF. Roles must be assigned to responsibilities, not users, to minimizE.
Sales orders are managed by CSRs centrally in each operating unit. The US operating unit has two
warehouses; there is only one warehouse in the Canadian operating unit. Each CSR is responsible to
schedule and release its own sales orders to the warehouses.
The warehouse staff picks and prepares material for shipment (it does not want to use the packing
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features of shipping execution).
The shipping staff manages deliveries and plans departures.
Which group’s role should have the Data Access-level Edit on the Deliveries tab?
A. shipping staff
B. warehouse staff
C. order entry staff
D. procurement staff
E. customer service representatives
Answer: A
166. Which two are the mandatory setup steps to ship from an organization? (Choose two.)
A. Grouping rules
B. Shipping grants
C. Pick Release rules
D. Ship Confirm rules
E. Open inventory periods
Answer: BE
167. To streamline warehouse operations, ACME decides to segregate various warehouse functions as
below:
A. Warehouse Manager: This provides access to all shipping-related functions such as managing trips,
deliveries, picking, and shippinG.
B. Picking Team: Members can only pick items to be shipped and pack them as needeD.
C. Shipping Team: Members cannot perform functions of the Picking Team but they can print various
shipping documents, assign freight costs, firm routing and contents, Ship Confirm, and manage trips.
Choose the most effective way of accomplishing this task?
A. Create separate menus for each of the above functions.
B. Create separate responsibilities for each of the above functions.
C. Create a Picking Team role with access to all functions with data access of View only.
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D. Create a Warehouse Manager role with access to all functions with data access of Edit.
E. Create an Edit only, Warehouse Manager role, a Picking Team role, and a Shipping Team role with
access to relevant functions.
F. Create View only Warehouse Manager role, View only Picking Team role, and View only Shipping
Team role with access to relevant functions.
Answer: E
168. Which two functions can be enabled when defining shipping roles? (Choose two)
A. Unreserve
B. Book Order
C. Create LPNs
D. Pick Release
E. Schedule Order Line
Answer: CD
169. What are the three components of the Shipping Method? (Choose threE. )
A. Transit Time
B. Service Level
C. Freight Carrier
D. Ship To Location
E. Mode of Transport
F. Ship From Location
Answer: BCE
170. A freight carrier is required to Ship Confirm a delivery when _____
A. the delivery is not in Firmed or Closed status
B. Global Shipping Parameter Enforce Ship Methods is enabled
C. you cannot ship products on your order to your customers manually
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D. a shipping method is specified on the sales order or sales order line
E. a shipping exception exists for the delivery or any of the included delivery lines
Answer: B
171. Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose threE. )
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in Transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization.
D. General Ledger accounts cannot be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Interorganization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the freight cost.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier, and internal organizations.
Answer: CEF
172. Which two statements are true for setting up freight carriers? (Choose two.)
A. Service levels are required for all freight carriers.
B. Service levels are optional additional information for carriers.
C. Freight carriers do not need to be assigned to organizations.
D. Freight carriers are organization specific, so they need to be defined for each organization.
E. The freight carriers are defined once and the corresponding ship methods are enabled in the
organizations that would be useD.
Answer: AE
173. What are the two setup steps necessary to generate sequentially numbered packing slips for a
delivery? (Choose two.)
A. Define document sets
B. Define delivery parameters
C. Define document categories
D. Define document sequences
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E. Define Auto Ship Confirm rules
Answer: CD
174. ACME uses three freight carriers for truckload shipments, only one of which will deliver to either
domestic or international destinations.
For each shipment, the carrier is selected based on the destination. Each carrier has provided the
warehouse with blank Bills of Lading, which the client completes for each delivery, as appropriatE.
Assuming that shipping documents are always used for all shipments, how many document sets should
be defined?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C
175. ACME uses the same carrier for both international and domestic shipments.
What is the minimum content of the shipping document set used for international shipments?
A. Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice, Mailing Label, Packing Slip
B. Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice, Mailing Label, Packing Slip, Pick Slip
C. Mailing Label, Master Bill of Lading, Packing Slip, Vehicle Load Sheet Summary
D. Commercial Invoice, Master Bill of Lading, Pick Slip, Vehicle Load Sheet Summary
Answer: A
176. Which statements are true about shipping documents such as Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice,
Mailing Label, Master Bill of Lading, Packing Slip, Pick Slip, and Vehicle Load Summary. (Choose two.)
A. Seeded shipping documents cannot be extendeD.
B. The user can define as many shipping document sets, depending upon warehouse and customer
requirements.
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C. The user must print at least one copy if you have specified a document to be printed as part of a
shipping document set.
D. The user can print any shipping documents individually after a shipping activity such as Pick Release
or Ship Confirm has been performeD.
E. After the user has assigned a shipping document set to a Ship Confirm rule, user may not change it at
Ship Confirm from the Shipping Transactions form.
Answer: BD
177. ACME uses deliveries to consolidate shipments going to the same customer and have been
informed that Business World has several orders with ACME for its Ship To location of SANJOS.
All the lines are to be assigned to the same delivery.
Which three strategies would meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Run Pick Release by customer.
B. Run the Process Deliveries SRS program.
C. Assign the same Ship Method to all Order Lines.
D. Run the Consolidate Order Lines concurrent program.
E. When running Pick Release, ensure that the Delivery criteria Autopack is set to No.
F. Query in the Shipping Transaction menu for all orders for Business World, and assign them to the
same delivery.
G. Run Pick Release not specifying the customer, and set Autocreate Delivery to No; then assign the
lines to a Delivery later.
Answer: AFG
178. An order has five lines with line statuses of Staged/Pick ConfirmeD.
There is no record on the Delivery tab in the Shipping Transactions form for this order.
What could be the possible resolution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.
C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.
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D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transactions form.
E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transactions form.
Answer: E
179. Which statement is true about release sequence rules?
A. They should not be used if the inventory balance is less than 100% accuratE.
B. They are used to determine in what order to allocate inventory to sales orders.
C. They are used during the Ship Confirm process to determine in what order to perform the shippinG.
D. You can assign an alphanumeric value to order number, outstanding invoice value, shipment priority,
or schedule datE.
Answer: B
180. ACME is running Pick Release and it is generating move orders.
ACME wants to have the orders flow through inventory and do not want to manually transact the move
orders.
Which setting in the Pick Release rule needs to be changed?
A. Set the default value of Auto Pick Confirm to No.
B. Set the default value of Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.
C. Set the default value of Autocreate Deliveries to No.
D. Set the default value of Autocreate Deliveries to Yes.
E. Associate a Ship Confirm rule with the Pick Release rulE.
Answer: B
181. Which type of customer environment would likely use Pick Release with a Ship Confirm rule?
A. customers using lot controls
B. customers using counter-sales
C. customers using containerized shipping
D. customers using handheld picking devices (MSCA)
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E. customers with serial number-controlled environment
Answer: B
182. Select three valid values for actions when defining Ship Confirm rules. (Choose threE. )
A. Cancel All
B. Delete ATP
C. Back Order All
D. Cycle Count All
E. Ship Entered Quantities
F. Stage Entered Quantities
Answer: CDE
183. ACMEs shipping process involves transit times spanning weeks. They want to track these
shipments from the moment shipments leave their shipping dock till they reach their customers’ docks.
Which two options are required for defining Ship Confirm rules? (Choose two.)
A. Deselect Close Trip.
B. Deselect Set Delivery In-Transit.
C. In Action, select Cycle Count All.
D. Use Backordered for Unspecified Quantities.
E. Select Create Delivery for Staged Quantities.
Answer: AE
184. You cannot unassign an LPN from delivery.
What must be the cause?
A. The delivery status is not Open.
B. The delivery line is not Pick ReleaseD.
C. The preferred flag is left unselected on the container.
D. Some order lines are still in the Awaiting Shipping status.
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E. One of the containers does not have a master container.
Answer: A
185. Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.
A. LPNs are organization independent.
B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.
C. No container item is required to create LPNs.
D. LPN numbers can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.
E. The delivery line status should be Pick Released before it can be assigned to LPNs.
Answer: D
186. The implementation team of a small distribution company wants to set up the order entry process
quickly.
Which three required setups are needed to enter a customer order? (Choose threE. )
A. Sales Channels
B. Defaulting Rules
C. Shipment Priority
D. At least one Price list
E. OM Transaction Types
F. Processing Constraints
G. Item Validation Organization
Answer: DEG
187. ACME accepts an order for services.
Which statement is true regarding the line status flow of the order process?
A. Entered, Booked, Closed
B. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Fulfillment, Closed
C. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, Closed
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D. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Fulfillment, Shipped, Closed
E. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, Shipped, Closed
F. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, Shipped, Awaiting Fulfillment, Closed
Answer: B
188. A sales Order is created, booked, and all lines are scheduleD.
Which three statements are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Gross margin hold may be applieD.
B. Credit Checking process is not donE.
C. The Order Line status changes to Awaiting ShippinG.
D. Processing Constraints control updates to all order entities.
E. Every time a new line is added to the order, the order needs to be bookeD.
Answer: ACD
189. ABC InC. is a distributor of automotive components. It has only one sales office in Detroit,
Michigan. It has been set up with only one ledger, a U.S. ledger with U.S. dollar (USD) as the currency.
ABC InC. received the following order from XYZ InC. to deliver automotive transmissions:
Deliver 1000 to their assembly plant in New York and bill the New York office in USD.
Deliver 2000 to their assembly plant in Japan and bill the Tokyo office in Japanese Yen.
Deliver 3000 to their assembly plant in China and bill the Hong Kong office in Hong Kong dollars.
How would you handle this order?
A. Create three different orders, each with different ship-to and bill-to address and the appropriate
currency.
B. Enter one order with three different lines; each line would have a different ship to and bill to address.
Use defaulting rules to default the appropriate currency for each line on the basis of the bill to address.
C. Enter one order with three different lines; each line would have different ship-to and bill-to address.
The default currency would be USD on each line; override that for each line and use the requested
currency.
D. Because the US ledger is used, enter one order with three different lines, and bill the customer only in
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USD. Inform the customer that it is not possible to have invoices in three different currencies, and let
the customer convert the invoice into the appropriate currency.
Answer: A
190. ACME manufactures Assemble-to-Order (ATO) laser machines.
Orders are configured based upon customer requirements.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The ATO model cannot be used on intercompany order transactions.
B. ACME generates the configured item when the sales order is in the Entered status.
C. ACME progresses the sales order after generating the configured item to create the work order.
D. Upon completion of the final assembly work order, Option Class and Option items are Pick Released
and Ship ConfirmeD.
E. When the item is configured, components available in stock can be Reserved and Ship Confirmed
without generating a work order.
Answer: CE
191. ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are setup using Configurator, which makes it intuitive for
configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.
Answer: B
192. In the PTO Order-to-Cash life cycle, a Model Kit Template requires three data elements.
They are ____.
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A. item name, item class, and item type
B. item name, item status, and item type
C. item name, item template, and item type
D. item name, item name, and ATP Profile Option
Answer: C
193. A multinational company (MNC) supplies Item A and Item B to its customers.
It manufactures item A in its own manufacturing plant, but purchases item B from a company called
Classic ManufacturinG.
The company also wants Classic Manufacturing to directly deliver item B to its customers.
Which Order Fulfillment model would best meet the requirements of the MNC?
A. Normal Shipment
B. Full Drop Shipment
C. Normal Shipment and Full Drop Shipment
D. Back-to-Back Orders and Normal Shipment
E. Back-to-Back Orders and Full Drop Shipment
F. Back-to-Back Orders and Partial Drop Shipment
Answer: C
194. Which three statements are true regarding Drop Ship orders? (Choose threE. )
A. The supplier ships to the seller.
B. Requisition Import Program creates the requisitions.
C. The PO is created from an Approved Requisition, which is then sent to the supplier.
D. Drop shipments are created as sales orders in Order Management with an Internal source typE.
E. The Purchase Release concurrent program or workflow in Order Management creates rows in the
Requisition Import tables.
Answer: BCE
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195. The customer service agent of ACME wants to identify the relevant line statuses of the Drop Ship
order process.
Which four statuses would you identify as valid for the complete Drop Ship process? (Choose four.)
A. Enter
B. Picked
C. Closed
D. Booked
E. Shipped
F. Awaiting Receipt
G. Awaiting Shipping
H. Ready to Release
Answer: ACDF
196. Which three statements are true about the Intercompany Drop Ship process across different
operating units? (Choose threE. )
A. Customer addresses are visible across ledger.
B. Customer addresses are not visible across ledger.
C. The shipping organization generates an Intercompany Payables invoicE.
D. The procurement organization generates an Intercompany Payables invoicE.
E. The shipping organization creates an Intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.
F. The procurement organization creates an Intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.
Answer: ACF
197. A large steel manufacturing company wants to utilize Blanket Sales Agreements (BSA) to track
sales.
Customer ABC Metals has agreed to buy 1 million pounds of steel in certain shapes, sizes, and
specifications.
The inventory setup is such that each part or item number represents a unique kind of steel with unique
shape, size, and specifications and is priced in pounds.
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Which is a valid way of tracking customer sales using BSA?
A. creating BSA on the basis of total price commitment
B. creating BSA on the basis of total pounds commitment
C. creating BSA on the basis of total price and pounds commitment
D. creating BSA on the basis of specific item numbers and pounds commitment
Answer: D
198. Which element of the Sales Agreement (SA) process flow requires an additional module?
A. Release against SA.
B. Approve Sales Agreement.
C. Negotiate long-term agreement.
D. Customer signs Sales Agreement.
E. Author and negotiate contract terms.
F. Accumulate item or dollar values ordered against the SA.
Answer: E
199. Which statement is true about Sales Agreements?
A. Sales Agreement Types can autogenerate forecast rules.
B. Sales Agreement Types can require or not require approval.
C. Sales Agreement Types can regenerate forecasted demanD.
D. Sales Agreement Types can autogenerate Certificates of Origin.
Answer: B
200. The Quantity Remaining/Quantity Fulfilled feature of Sales Agreements can be associated with
_____.
A. vendor-managed inventories only
B. non-vendor-managed inventories only
C. OEM vendor-managed inventories only
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D. non-OEM vendor-managed inventories only
E. either vendor-managed or OEM vendor-managed inventories
Answer: E
201. A medical device company has its head office in the Netherlands and its manufacturing plant in
Japan.
During the order process, the Dutch and Japanese operating units must work closely as the order cycle
requires multiple iterations between Order Entry and Order Fulfillment.
Using functionality of MOAC, the company observes significant increases in productivity.
Select the reason for the increase in productivity.
A. Release 12 employs a heuristic scheduling model.
B. Release 12 order cycle has been reengineered and presently involves less steps.
C. New Default Rules and Default Conditions allow Release 12 to run with less information.
D. With the Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC) feature of Release 12, users can handle the
main activities of the order processing for multiple operating units, without repeatedly changing
responsibility.
Answer: D
202. An organization has three operating units-Holland, Belgium, and Denmark-and is upgrading to R12.
Which three statements are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Order Management responsibilities must be set at the operating unit level.
B. A single responsibility can be set up through which application the user can access all the three
operating units.
C. Negotiate Sales Agreements is possible for the above mentioned operating units only by changing the
responsibilities.
D. Enter Quotes, Orders, and Returns is possible across the above mentioned three operating units
using a single responsibility.
E. Set up Transaction Types and System Parameters is possible across all three operating units without
changing the responsibility.
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F. Schedule Orders, Apply and Release Holds is possible for the above mentioned three operating units
only by changing the responsibilities.
Answer: BDE
203. Identify the three correct statements regarding Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC).
(Choose threE. )
A. Responsibility can be set across operating units.
B. MOAC allows the Operating Unit field to be left blank.
C. The application behaves conventionally when MOAC-specific set ups are not enableD.
D. The default Operating Unit for any Order Management Responsibility is set by the MO: Default
Operating Unit Profile valuE.
E. The MOAC-enabled environment will record a null value for the Operating Unit when Order is saved
by the user without specifying the Operating Unit valuE.
Answer: ACD
204. In a Multiple Organization Access Control-enabled environment you search for orders with the
following criteria:
1) The Operating Unit field is Null.
2) A specific value is entered for the Transaction type fielD.
Which statement best describes the above mentioned search criteria?
A. It will find orders across all the operating units.
B. The scenario is not a valid one considering the Release 12 functionality.
C. It will find orders across all the operating units for which the specific transaction types have been
defineD.
D. It will find orders across all the operating units, which are accessible under the responsibility used by
the application users.
E. It will find orders across all the operating units, which are accessible under the responsibility used and
also across all the accessible operating units for which the specific transaction type has been set up.
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Answer: E
205. An organization has a single ledger and four operating units. A user from the shipping department
has access to three of the operating units and wishes to set site level shipping tolerances.
Select three correct options. (Choose threE. )
A. Setting up site level shipping tolerances is not alloweD.
B. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances only for the default operating unit for his or her
responsibility.
C. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances only for the three operating units for which he or
she has access.
D. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for multiple operating units from the Shipping
Tolerance Form.
E. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for the three accessible operating units without
changing responsibility.
F. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for the three accessible operating units, but has to
change responsibility.
Answer: CDE
206. Which two statements are true regarding the Approval List form? (Choose two.)
A. The form does not display an Operating Unit fielD.
B. The form displays the Operating Unit field and is read only.
C. The form displays all the approval lists for a specific order based on the operating units.
D. The form has a mandatory parameter (Operating Unit) and will display the approval lists for a specific
customer.
E. The form displays all the approval lists for the transaction types, which have been defined for the
displayed operating unit.
F. The form displays all the transaction types for which the approval lists have been defined, irrespective
of the operating unit.
Answer: BE
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207. Select the required setup change for implementing Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC).
A. No additional setup changes are requireD.
B. New profile options must be set up for MOAC.
C. The MO: Default Operating Units option has been modified to contain more than one Operating Unit
values.
D. For incorporating MOAC, some important OM System parameters have been changed to
responsibility level OM Profile options.
E. For incorporating MOAC, some key profile options have been changed from responsibility level to
Order Management (OM) System parameters.
Answer: E
208. Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose threE. )
A. System Parameters can be set with different values for different operating units.
B. System Parameters cannot be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: Credit Salesperson for Freight on Sales has been changed to an OM System
Parameter.
D. The System Parameter OM: Credit Salesperson for Freight on Sales has been changed to a profile
option.
E. The profile OM Employee for Self Service order has been changed to an OM System Parameter with
the same namE.
F. The System Parameter name OM Employee for Self Service order is the single OM System
Parameter, which has not been changed to an OM ProfilE.
G. The profile OM Employee for Self Service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has
been changed to an OM System Parameter with a new name Requestor for Drop Ship Order Created by
External Users.
Answer: ACG
209. When querying through the Scheduling Organizer form with an item and a date range combination,
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multiple lines associated with multiple operating units are returned as a return data set.
Which four actions are possible on the return data set using the Scheduling Organizer window? (Choose
four.)
A. reserving action
B. shipping action
C. availability action
D. unreserving action
E. scheduling action
F. unscheduling action
Answer: ADEF
210. The user leaves the Operating Unit field blank in the Order Organizer Find form.
When running the query, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Operating Unit field cannot be left blank.
B. The item list of values (LOV) will show all the items available for all the operating units.
C. The item LOV will show all the items available for the default operating unit.
D. The OM System Parameter Item Validation Organization controls the items available for the item LOV.
E. The item LOV will show all the items based on the OM System Parameter Item Validation
Organization for all the operating units.
F. The item LOV will show all the items based on the OM System Parameter Item Validation
Organization for the default operating unit.
Answer: DF
211. Which four are the functions of an Inventory Organization? (Choose four.)
A. Items
B. Ledger
C. Set of books
D. Putaway rules
E. Costing method
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F. Workday calendar
Answer: ABEF
212. Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at __________.
A. the Entity Level
B. the Subinventory Level
C. the Operating Unit Level
D. the Item Master Inventory Level
E. the Inventory Organization Level
Answer: E
213. In a multiorganization Oracle deployment, locations are shared by _____.
A. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Order Management, and Oracle PLM
B. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle HR Management
C. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle Order Management
D. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Order Management, and Oracle Engineering
Answer: B
214. Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. An item master organization can have child inventory organizations over multiple ledgers.
B. Items in one item master organization can be associated with other item master organizations.
C. After an item master organization item has been created, it cannot be assigned to any other inventory
organization.
D. There is no functional or technical difference between an item master organization and other
inventory organizations.
Answer: AD
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215. Select the four correct statements. (Choose four.)
A. A receiving subinventory is required in OraclE.
B. A subinventory can span multiple organizations.
C. A subinventory cannot be used with Locator Control.
D. A subinventory can be a physical or a logical groupinG.
E. A subinventory location is required for all inventory transactions.
F. A subinventory can be the primary place where items are stockeD.
G. A subinventory location can never be deleted from the Oracle inventory.
Answer: DEFG
216. Which statements best describe Locator Control? (Choose two.)
A. can be dynamic at the item level
B. cannot be changed after it is specified
C. can be specified at the item master level
D. can be specified at the operating unit level
E. can be specified at the inventory organization level
Answer: CE
217. The Item Subinventory Report output contains____. (Choose threE. )
A. EOQ
B. Source Type
C. Locator Control
D. Focus Forecast
E. Fixed Lot Multiple
F. Min-max Information
Answer: BEF
218. UOM Class tables are maintained at the ____.
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A. Item Master level
B. Inventory Org level
C. Operating Unit level
D. Subinventory Org level
Answer: C
219. When defining a UOM for the first time, the system will ____.
A. default to UOM Classes
B. prompt for the creation of a Key Flex Field first
C. require that an inventory organization be specified first
D. allow UOM and UOM Class to be defined on the same form
Answer: C
220. Lot-level UOM conversions require ____.
A. lot control at the item level
B. an item-specific conversion factor
C. lot control at the predetermined Locator level
D. lot control at the predetermined Subinventory level
E. that the item master be linked to Order Management for sales order entry
Management, and Oracle Engineering
Answer: B
221. The profile option INV: Detect Truncation on UOM Conversion relates to _________.
A. UOM Class conversions only
B. lot-level UOM conversions only
C. specific UOM Class conversion setups
D. specific lot-level UOM conversion setups
E. uniform decimal precision across Oracle applications
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Answer: E
222. Setting the Inventory parameter Auto Create Lot UOM Conversion to “Yes” _____.
A. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across the inventory
organization
B. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across lot-controlled
subinventories
C. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across lot-controlled
inventory locators
D. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across the item master
inventory organization
Answer: A
223. The default number of decimal places for any UOM is _____.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: B
224. Select the four correct statements. (Choose four.)
A. The Item Master uses itself as its own Item Master.
B. Purchasing must be set up as the master organization.
C. Purchasing cannot be set up as an inventory organization.
D. Child organizations are assigned to the item master organization.
E. The Organization window is used to create inventory organizations.
F. The Item Master is linked to Order Management when Revision Control is enableD.
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G. The Organization Parameters window is used to specify an organization as an item master
organization.
Answer: ADEG
225. Select three Item Attributes groups. (Choose threE. )
A. General Planning
B. Order Management
C. Periodic Manufacturing
D. Process Manufacturing
E. Discrete Manufacturing
F. Repetitive Manufacturing
Answer: ABD
226. In the Organization Inventory form and under the Order Management tab, the two default SO
Source Types are _____. (Choose two.)
A. ATP
B. ATO
C. PTO
D. Internal
E. External
Answer: DE
227. In the Organization Inventory form and under the Order Management tab, the default ATP Rule is
_____.
A. Blank
B. Consume
C. Soft Pegging
D. Hard Pegging
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E. Consume and Derive
Answer: A
228. Available To Promise Rules are ______.
A. seeded using APICS conventions
B. user defined in the Order Management module
C. user defined using a matrix of selectable criteria
D. user defined in the Global Order Promising module
E. system assigned based upon the item type, cumulative lead time, and unconsumed forecast
Answer: C
229. At which two levels can ATP Rules be set? (Choose two.)
A. the Item Master level
B. the Subinventory level
C. the Operating Unit level
D. the Locator Control level
E. the Item Organization level
g
Answer: AE
230. In which module is a relationship established between two parties where all corresponding
accounts and transactions associated with one party are accessible by another party?
A. Planning
B. Inventory
C. Payables
D. Receivables
E. General Ledger
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Answer: D
231. Which two statements are true regarding various components of the Party Model? (Choose two.)
A. A location is a binary relationship, such as a partnership, between two parties.
B. A party site is defined by the characteristics or terms and conditions of that relationship.
C. A party relationship links a party with a location, indicating the party’s usage of the location.
D. A party is an entity, such as people and organizations, who can enter into business relationships.
E. A contact point implies means for contacting a party (for example, a phone number, an email address,
or a fax number).
Answer: DE
232. ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the
globE.
Given that addresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to
handle this situation?
A. Set up the address format as a context-sensitive key flexfielD.
B. Set up the address format as a free format segmented value set.
C. Set up the address format as a context-sensitive descriptive flexfielD.
D. Set up the address format as a dependent value set with country-specific segments.
Answer: C
233. Which two statements are true about Customer Profile Classes? (Choose two.)
A. Customer Profile Classes are assigned in the customer setup.
B. Customer Profile Classes can be used to group customer accounts with similar credit worthiness.
C. Customer Profile Classes can be assigned only at the customer level, and not at the account level.
D. The only setup required to check customer credit is the selection of the Credit check box in the
Customer ProfilE.
E. When an attribute is changed on a Profile Class template, the attribute is updated for all customers
assigned to that Profile Class.
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Answer: AB
234. Which two pieces of customer information does Order Management use? (Choose two.)
A. SIC Code
B. IRS 1099 Eligibility
C. customer classification
D. customer account information
E. customer account sites information
Answer: DE
235. Which two requirements must be met to create a party paying relationship? (Choose two.)
A. A common bank relationship is required for all parties.
B. The relationship type must be assigned to Pay Within or Pay Below groups.
C. The relationship type must be hierarchical, and the subject and object parties must be of the
Organization typE.
D. The relationship must be created between the two suppliers’ sites to link the correct paying
relationships.
E. The relationship between the two parties must be such that they use the same nonreciprocal bank
account.
Answer: BC
236. Identify three correct statements regarding the Deferred Revenue and COGS AccountinG.
(Choose threE. )
A. At Shipping or Drop Shipping, Inventory debits deferred COGS account.
B. For non-invoicable lines, COGS is recognized 100% when the line is closeD.
C. COGS is recognized as RevenuE. This process is done by Order Management.
D. Deferred Revenue and COGS accounting process does not support Service item types.
E. Accounting standards dictate that Deferred Revenue and COGS be strictly recorded in the same
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accounting periods.
F. If a Sales Order line has a contingency attached, Revenue Recognition happens only after the
contingency is removeD.
Answer: ABF
237. Identify the correct three statements regarding the Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting setup.
(Choose threE. )
A. COGS Recognition and Revenue Recognition are done by Costing and AR.
B. No setup is required in OM for enabling Deferred Revenue and COGS AccountinG.
C. OM requires some Key Profiles to enable Deferred Revenue and COGS AccountinG.
D. Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting processes do not have any relevant setup in Inventory or
CostinG.
E. Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting related setups need to be enabled in the Inventory Org
Parameter form – Costing taB.
Answer: ABE
238. Identify three correct statements regarding the revenue recognition featurE. (Choose threE. )
A. Back-to-back orders are contingencies that OM supports in the context of revenue recognition.
B. COGS can be recorded on the invoiced line, whereas revenue can be recorded on the shipped linE.
C. Customer acceptance is the only contingency that OM supports in the context of revenue recognition.
D. As revenue is recognized, a corresponding percentage of deferred COGS may not move to real
COGS.
E. Deferred revenue and COGS accounting can be very successfully used as a solution for ATO/PTO
matching problem.
F. Revenue recognition depends on and interacts with inventory, costing, account receivables, OM, and
shipping execution.
Answer: CEF
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239. Customer acceptance is applicable for which four order types or models. (Choose four.)
A. kits
B. returns
C. internal orders
D. retro bill orders
E. ATO/PTO models
F. standard orders with service items
G. standard orders with standard items
Answer: AEFG
240. Identify three correct statements regarding the customer acceptance contingency. (Choose threE. )
A. Acceptance contingency cannot be defined for ATO/PTO models.
B. Acceptance contingency can be defined at the child level for service Items.
C. Acceptance contingency can be defined at the parent level as well as the child level for kits.
D. Acceptance contingency can be defined for kit at the parent level, and the child lines inherit
acceptance from the parent level.
E. Acceptance contingency can be defined for service Items at the parent level, and the child lines inherit
acceptance from the parent level.
F. Acceptance contingency can be defined for ATO/PTO models at the parent level, and the child lines
inherit acceptance from the parent level.
Answer: DEF
241. Identify three correct statements regarding prebilling acceptancE. (Choose threE. )
A. Pending prebilling is not the correct line status for shipped goods.
B. Invoicing should be used as a removal event for prebilling acceptancE.
C. Customer acceptance should be used as a removal event for prebilling acceptancE.
D. Implicit acceptance and explicit acceptance are both possible for prebilling acceptancE.
E. Revenue recognition happens when acceptance is completed for prebilling acceptancE.
F. Invoice generation and revenue recognition happen simultaneously during prebilling acceptancE.
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Answer: BDF
242. Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptancE. (Choose threE. )
A. Action Attribute – Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptancE.
B. An implicit acceptance request set has two concurrent requests:
1) Generate Pre-billing Acceptance Program for Pre-billing, Implicit Acceptance
2) Revenue Contingency Analyzer for Post-billing, Implicit Acceptance
C. Execution of a concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptancE.
D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the Order Import Correction
form.
E. An Acceptance Comment field is available on Order Header Level (Order Information/Other tab) of the
Sales Order form.
F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship
confirmation date and expiration days.
Answer: BDF
243. Identify the correct statements regarding the enhanced online transaction security features.
(Choose two.)
A. Additional setup is needed in Order Management.
B. Validation for Credit Card Security Code occurs at order entry.
C. Credit Card Security Code is a mandatory feature for release 12.
D. A new field Credit Card Security Code is added on the Standard and Quick Sales Order form and the
Order Import correction form.
E. The main idea for enhancing transaction security is a more decentralized Credit Card and Bank
Account information system.
F. When the Credit Card Security Code for a particular order is entered, validated, and saved, any user
with OM superuser responsibility can view the Security Code for the Credit CarD.
Answer: BD
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244. Identify three correct statements regarding the Credit Card Encryption featurE. (Choose threE. )
A. Credit Card Type is displayed as Card BranD.
B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.
C. Oracle Payments is the single repository for multiple payment mode information across application
modules.
D. Instrument Masking Control for Credit Card and Bank Account is set up through Order Management
setup options.
E. The main idea behind the Credit Card Security Code and Credit Card Encryption is to make the Credit
Card and Bank Account information more centralized across the application and hence more securE.
Answer: ACE
245. Select the required tax setups for enabling MOAC. (Choose two.)
A. Additional setup in OM is not needeD.
B. OM System Parameter Tax: Inventory Item for Freight is a required setup.
C. OM System Parameter Tax: Invoice Freight as Revenue is a required setup.
D. OM Profile Tax: Inventory Item for Freight is a required setup at the responsibility level.
E. OM Profile Tax: Invoice Freight as Revenue is a required setup at the responsibility level.
F. A new key Profile Tax: Multi Organization Access Control needs to be set up for the OM responsibility
level.
Answer: BC
246. What is the expected behavior when the profile option OM: Apply Automatic Attachments is set to
Yes at the site level?
A. Rule-based attachments are applied without user intervention.
B. All attachments are applied to the sales order header and lines.
C. Rule-based attachments are not applied without user intervention.
D. All automatic attachments are applied to the sales order header, but not the lines.
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Answer: A
247. ACME corporation sells products that are made in batches. Often, batch runs yield quantities that
are less than the customers’ ordered quantity. The customers accept shipments for quantities less than
order quantities and consider their order fulfilled when the shipment quantity is within ten percent of the
order quantity.
Which configuration enables this business rule?
A. Set the profile option “OM: Under Return Tolerance” to 10 at the site level.
B. Set the profile option “OM: Under Shipment Tolerance” to 10 at the site level.
C. Set the profile option “OM: Under Shipment Tolerance” to 90 at the site level.
D. Set the profile option “OM: Under Shipment Tolerance” to 110 at the site level.
Answer: B
248. A key business requirement is that users should be able to create sales orders with minimum
keystrokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four.)
A. Defaulting Rules
B. Transaction Types
C. OM: Invoice Source
D. Processing Constraints
E. Automatic Attachment Rules
F. OM: Invoice Transaction Type
G. OM: Sales Order Form Preference
H. OM: Enable Related Items and Manual Substitutions
Answer: ABEG
249. Certain ACME Corporation’s customer service representatives will be authorized to establish a
promise date for sales order lines different from the one provided by the system.
What is a necessary setup to meet this business requirement?
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A. Run ATP in the appropriate inventory organization.
B. Ensure that there is always enough inventory.
C. Set the INV: Capable to Promise profile option.
D. Open the inventory period for the shipping organization.
E. Set the OM: Authorized to Override ATP profile option to Yes at the specific user level.
Answer: E
250. Select five results displayed by the system after ATP calculation on a sales order. (Choose fivE. )
A. Warehouse
B. Available Quantity
C. On-hand Quantity
D. Item primary buyer
E. Item primary planner
F. Quantity Reservable
G. Subinventory Quantity
H. Request Date Quantity
I.Substitute item’s available quantity
Answer: ABCFH
251. Identify the two methods used in Oracle E-Business Suite to calculate ATP. (Choose two.)
A. ATP based on collected data
B. ATP based on planning output
C. ATP based on memory planner
D. ATP based on historical consumption
E. ATP based on item substitution availability
Answer: AB
252. Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collected datA.
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(Choose four.)
A. Define price lists.
B. Define ATP Rules.
C. Set up stock locators.
D. Set up transit lead timE.
E. Set up pricing modifiers.
F. Select the ATP item attributE.
G. Set up Profile INV: Capable to PromisE.
H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy.
Answer: BDFG
253. Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on planning output.
(Choose four.)
A. Set up price lists.
B. Define ATP Rules.
C. Set up allocated ATP.
D. Set up pricing modifiers.
E. Set up product family ATP.
F. Set up inventory organization hierarchy.
G. Assign master scheduler responsibility.
H. Select ATP and component ATP item attributes.
Answer: BCEH
254. Identify the setup step that will allow the application user to access the Scheduling Find tab and the
Scheduling
Organizer window, but not other tabs within the Order Organizer-that is, Order Information, Line
Information, Advanced, and Holds Information.
A. Assign a restrictive shipping role to the user in question.
B. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to CSR only.
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C. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to Scheduler only.
D. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to CSR and Scheduler.
Answer: C
255. Identify three features that are provided under scheduling in Order Management. (Choose threE. )
A. Reserving
B. Scheduling
C. Booking the Order
D. Removing Scheduling Holds
E. Performing Automatic Pricing
F. Calculating Available-to-Promise (ATP)
Answer: ABF
256. Identify four ways in which sales order lines can be scheduleD. (Choose four.)
A. Manually
B. Using Pick Release
C. Using Autoschedule
D. Using Ship Confirm
E. Running data collection
F. Manually scheduling the subprocess
G. Scheduling the orders concurrent program
Answer: ACFG
257. Select three ways to deactivate credit checking on an order. (Choose threE. )
A. Disable the credit checking defaulting rulE.
B. Disable the credit checking flag at the operating-unit level.
C. Disable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.
D. Use an order type that does not have an assigned credit rulE.
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E. Use payment terms for which the Credit check box is not selecteD.
F. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is not selecteD.
Answer: DEF
258. Select the activities where credit checking can be invoked by the system for noncredit card orders.
(Choose four.)
A. Quoting
B. Booking
C. Shipping
D. Scheduling
E. Order Entry
F. Reservation
G. Pick Release
H. Purchase Release (for drop shipments)
Answer: BCGH
259. Identify two necessary conditions that allow the user to manage OM transaction types for more than
one operating unit without changing responsibilities, or closing out of the form. (Choose two.)
A. Multi Org Access Control is enableD.
B. The MO: Operating Unit profile option is set to a blank value at the site level.
C. The same numbering sequence is assigned to all transaction types.
D. The MO: Default Operating Unit profile option is set to a blank value at the site level.
E. User is granted access to the appropriate operating units via the MO: Security Profile profile option.
Answer: AE
260. ACME Corporation customer service representatives will be entering sales orders for return and
replacement parts on the same sales order.
How should the transaction type be configured? (Choose threE. )
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A. The Order category of the order header transaction type must be set to MixeD.
B. The Order category of the order header transaction type must be set to Return.
C. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of PTO.
D. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of Order.
E. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of Return.
F. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of ATO/PTO.
Answer: ADE
261. When setting up order transaction types, which is the first setup step required?
A. Create the Order Transaction typE.
B. Create a document sequence for orders.
C. Create the Line Transaction type for order lines.
D. Create the Line Transaction type for return lines.
E. Assign line flows to the Order Transaction TypE.
F. Assign the Order transaction type to the document sequencE.
Answer: A
262. Most orders for ACME Corporation are entered as quotes in Order Management. These quotes will
then become sales orders after they get approveD.
What are the three necessary setups that will support this business requirement. (Choose threE. )
A. Start the Inventory Manager.
B. Use the Quick Order Entry form.
C. Set the Default Transaction Phase to Fulfillment.
D. Associate a fulfillment flow with the order transaction typE.
E. Associate a negotiation flow with the order transaction typE.
F. Customize the fulfillment flow so that all approval notifications are sent to the customer service
manager.
Answer: CDE
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263. Which three statements are true regarding the definition and use of transaction types and order
flows? (Choose threE. )
A. You can have only one flow per transaction typE.
B. You are allowed to have both order and quote lines on the same order.
C. You are allowed to have both order and return lines on the same order.
D. You are allowed to have order, quote, and return line on the same order.
E. Each quote is assigned a header flow only. Line flows are not assigned for quotes.
F. Each line in a sales order has its own workflow, so each line may follow a different flow.
Answer: CEF
264. The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types.
Identify five valid item types. (Choose fivE. )
A. Ship Only
B. Order Line
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM Price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM Change Order
H. OM Blanket Header
Answer: BCDGH
265. When setting up transaction types for quotes and orders, _____.
A. use the transaction type window to select the flow to use
B. use the approval hierarchy from Purchasing to decide approval routing
C. create a quote or an order, and then link to the appropriate negotiations flow
D. book the order and select the negotiations flow that would be used by an order
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Answer: A
266. When adding a new recipient to the Approvals list for the seeded Negotiation Flow with Approvals,
which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Open the seeded workflow and add the new name therE.
B. Modify the seeded approval list to create a new workflow.
C. The seeded workflow list of approvers cannot be modifieD.
D. Select Setup > Transaction Types > Approvals and add the recipient to the list of Approvers for the
appropriate list namE.
E. Select Setup > Transaction Types, query the appropriate transaction type, and then click the
Approvals button. Finally, the user should add the recipient to the list of Approvers for the appropriate list
namE.
Answer: DE
267. When entering sales orders for Big City Electronics, the customer service representative wants the
system to always prepopulate the Chicago warehouse as the ship from the warehouse on the sales
order header and lines. Big City Electronics always gets its products shipped from this warehousE. No
other customers are allowed to get their products from the Chicago warehousE.
Which two configuration steps can be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Start the Workflow Background enginE.
B. Set the defaulting profile option at the site level.
C. Set up a defaulting rule so that the Chicago warehouse is defaulted to all order headers and lines
regardless of the customer.
D. Set up a defaulting rule so that the customer’s preferred warehouse as specified on the customer
record is defaulted to the sales order header.
E. Set up a defaulting rule so that every time an order is entered for Big City Electronics, the Chicago
warehouse will be defaulted to the order header.
F. Set up a defaulting rule so that every time an order line is entered for Big City Electronics, the Chicago
warehouse will be defaulted to the order line from the order header.
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Answer: EF
268. Select three correct statements that describe the process of updating defaulting rules in Order
Management. (Choose threE. )
A. Enable Profile: Global Defaulting Rule UpdatE.
B. Seeded defaulting rules can be disabled, but not modifieD.
C. Seeded defaulting rules can be modified when they have not been applied to sales orders.
D. To modify a seeded defaulting rule, you first need to cancel all lines where it has been applieD.
E. If you want to modify a seeded defaulting rule, disable the seeded defaulting rule condition, and then
create a copy of the seeded defaulting rule and include your changes in the copied defaulting rulE.
F. Updates to defaulting rules take effect when the Defaulting Generator concurrent program has been
submitted for the application and the program successfully completes for the entity combination
modifieD.
Answer: BEF
269. By using order line level defaulting rules, you can _____.
A. override the existing values on existing order lines
B. restrict what users can enter on the order line fields
C. default values only when a new line record is added
D. default any field on the order header main tabbed page
Answer: C
270. Some customers of Sterlite InC. have special order processing requirements. A bill to location or a
ship to location of these customers may also need to have its own special order typE.
However, in general, users in various departments need to always enter orders of a particular type:
1) Domestic personnel need to enter orders of Order Type Domestic
2) Export Department personnel need to enter orders of Order Type International
A new custom profile is created to the default order type for different responsibilities or users. The
special order types can be defined in customer, ship to, or bill to records as requireD.
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A user has created a new sales order. Where would the order type default from?
A. Related Record Ship-to: Order type
B. Related Record Invoice to: Order type
C. Related Record Customer: Order type
D. Application Profile XXOM : xxxxxxx (New profile option)
Answer: D
271. ACME wants to update some order line attributes depending on the values of some order header
attributes based on certain order line-level conditions (for example, items). The order has four lines, two
of which satisfy the above criteriA.
Which two features of OM meet the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Cascading Attributes
B. Mass Change Multi-Select
C. Standard line-level workflow
D. Standard update attribute API
E. Standard header-level workflow
Answer: BD
272. Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose threE. )
A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_CascadE.
B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to LinE.
C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable for User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order).
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other
lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade
header changes to linE.
Answer: ABC
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273. Both Basic Pricing and Advanced Pricing can use modifiers.
Identify three modifier types that can be used with Basic PricinG. (Choose threE. )
A. Coupons
B. Discounts
C. Promotions
D. Surcharges
E. Substitution Item
F. Freight and Special Charges
Answer: BDF
274. Which application is used to set the profile options in Basic Pricing?
A. Inventory
B. Advanced Pricing
C. Order Management
D. Shipping Execution
E. System Administration
Answer: E
275. Select the three permissions for setting Basic Pricing profile options. (Choose threE. )
A. View
B. Delete
C. Administer
D. Read Only
E. No Access
F. View and Update
Answer: AEF
276. Which four seeded freight charges are included in Oracle Pricing? (Choose four.)
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A. Duty
B. Labor
C. Export
D. Trucking
E. Services
F. Insurance
G. Miscellaneous
H. Special Handling
Answer: ACFG
277. ACME sells the Super Fast Router Z100 product in the Networking Gear product group at a list
price of $100.00. They also sell the Power Cord 300 product at a list price of $50.00 in the Accessories
product group.
Products in the Networking Gear group sell for a 5% discount and the products in the Accessories group
sell for a 10% discount. ACME offers a VIP discount of 4% to all customers in the National OEM class on
all orders.
Customers who are not in the National OEM class are not eligible for any discounts.
Which options successfully meet some of the above requirements. (Choose threE. )
A. Create a Modifier List of the Surcharge typE.
B. Create a Modifier List of the Discount List typE.
C. Create an order-level modifier discount of 3% and qualify it to the National OEM class.
D. Create a group of lines-level modifier discount of 3% and qualify it to the National OEM class.
E. Assign an incompatibility group called Other Customers already created to 3% order-level modifier
discount.
F. Assign an incompatibility group called Other Customers already created to 3% group of lines-level
modifier discount.
G. Create a line-level modifier with the percent application method with a value of 5 and qualify it with the
Accessories product group.
Answer: BCG
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278. ACME manufactures and sells industrial products to original equipment manufacturers, after market
distributors and direct consumers.
Each customer class has its own price lists, which are OEM PL, AM PL, and DC PL respectively. They
have added one of their popular products, Drive Train DCX500, to each price list as below:
Price List List Price Precedence
———— ———— —————
OEM PL $150.00 220
AM PL $130.00 220
DC PL $170.00 220
They have configured the system such that the customer service representative at his/her discretion,
depending on the customer, selects the price list for the order. A customer service representative is
entering an order for an OEM customer to ship 10 items of Drive Train DCX500.
The customer service representative forgets to select the price list when capturing this order for the
above product. What will be the total price of the order if the customer is ordering only 10 items of the
Drive Train DCX100 product?
A. $1700.00
B. $1300.00
C. $1500.00
D. System throws an error message: Price list is mandatory.
E. System throws an error message: More than one price returned for this item.
Answer: B
279. Your client sells very high-value and low-volume exotic diamonds. They want to configure the
system to meet the following requirements:
The system should recommend pricing of products based on certain predefined rules.
The system should allow the order capture person to modify existing discounts and apply additional
predefined manual discounts or surcharges if necessary.
Which four setups meet the requirements? (Choose four.)
A. Add a secondary price list.
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B. The Override check box must be selected when defining manual modifiers.
C. For all manual modifiers, the Automatic check box must not be cleareD.
D. For all automatic modifiers, the Automatic check box must not be cleareD.
E. The Override check box must be selected when defining automatic modifiers.
F. Profile Option QP: Return Manual Discounts must be set to Y so that all manual discounts are
returned and all automatic discounts that are not considered are returned as manual discounts.
Answer: BCEF
280. ACME’s standard freight charge is a ten-percent markup of actual handling costs.
To ensure the correct calculation of freight charges, which formula, qualifier context, and qualifier
attribute will you use? (Choose two.)
A. Create a formula to calculate the markup Freight Handling charge as (0.1 times the Handling Cost).
B. Create a formula to calculate the markup Freight Handling charge as (1.1 times the Handling Cost).
C. Use a Qualifier Context of Terms and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Terms with a line-level modifier
linE.
D. Use a Qualifier Context of Terms and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Terms with an order-level modifier
linE.
E. Use a Qualifier Context of Order and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Type Code with a line-level
modifier linE.
F. Use a Qualifier Context of Order and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Type Code with an order-level
modifier linE.
Answer: BE
281. You created a modifier list for one of the pricing scenarios at ACME. You added modifier lines to
the modifier list.
The modifier list has not yet been used on any order and you recognize that one of the modifier lines is
not needeD.
What will you do?
A. Create an end date for the modifier line that you do not want to usE.
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B. Deselect the Active check box on the modifier list.
C. Delete the modifier list and create a new modifier list.
D. Delete the modifier line that you think is no longer needeD.
E. Deselect the Active check box on the modifier line that you do not want to usE.
Answer: A
282. Identify three true statements regarding Freight and Special Charges. (Choose threE. )
A. Accrual is a valid application method for the modifier type of Freight/Special ChargE.
B. Basic Pricing provides a seeded Freight and Special Charge type of the modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific Freight and Special Charge type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the Range price breaks in creating modifiers for Freight and Special Charges if you are
using only Basic PricinG.
E. You can define your own implementation-specific Freight Cost Type or Freight Charge Type codes for
use in modifiers for calculating Freight and Special Charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing
engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Answer: BEF
283. All of ACME’s orders have a predefined freight charge for each line item.
The company wants to apply the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order
amount.
Apply _____.
A. freight charges at Ship Confirm
B. the manual Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
C. the automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
D. the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at the time of the sales
order
Answer: C
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284. ACME wants to prepare a checklist of requirements that must be met to ship a sales order.
Which option lists all the requirements to ship a sales order?
A. The Item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
B. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines
workflow.
C. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines
workflow.
D. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines
workflow.
E. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Shipped, and Shipping is an activity in the lines
workflow.
F. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Awaiting Shipping, and Shipping is an activity in the
lines workflow.
Answer: B
285. After a sales order is booked, the sales order lines must complete all workflow activities leading to
the shipping activity.
Which two workflow activities are part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Create Trip
B. Pick Release
C. Create Supply
D. Schedule Line
E. Create Delivery
Answer: CD
286. At which stage in the Shipping Execution process is a high-level reservation transferred to an
allocated reservation?
A. Interfaced
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B. Pick Release
C. Pick Confirm
D. Ship Confirm
E. Sales Order Booking
Answer: C
287. Identify three areas where a Ship Confirm rule can be used to direct shipping transactions. (Choose
threE. )
A. Quick Ship
B. Auto Invoice
C. Pick Release
D. Quick Release
E. Move Order Allocation
F. Auto pack deliveries SRS
G. Ship Confirm Deliveries SRS
Answer: ACG
288. Which statements are true about an LPN? (Choose four.)
A. An LPN is a logical plate number.
B. LPNs require a unique category set.
C. An LPN is also known as a container.
D. LPNs can be set as an inventory item.
E. LPN can be used in non-WMS organization.
F. An LPN can be loaded inside another container.
G. LPNs can be made mandatory using the Shipping parameter.
Answer: CEFG
289. Which three are results of the Ship Confirm process when the Defer Interface flag is set to No?
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(Choose threE. )
A. The sales order is closeD.
B. The inventory is decrementeD.
C. The sales order line is updateD.
D. The sales order is pick releaseD.
E. The material is transferred from the staging inventory.
F. High-level reservations are converted to allocated reservations.
Answer: BCE
290. Which statement is true about delivery lines?
A. Delivery lines cannot be split in shipping transactions.
B. Delivery lines cannot be shipped on the same delivery if they are from different orders.
C. Delivery lines must be booked and scheduled in Order Management in order to appear in shipping
transactions.
D. Delivery lines that have been assigned to a delivery must be back-ordered in order to assign a
different delivery number.
Answer: C
291. Using mobile supply chain application (MSCA) devices, what combination provides the user the
highest level of control when defining Pick Release rules?
A. Set Auto Allocate to No, and set Auto Pick Confirm to No.
B. Set Auto Allocate to Yes, and set Auto Pick Confirm to No.
C. Set Auto Allocate to No, and set Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.
D. Set Auto Allocate to Yes, and set Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.
Answer: A
292. Freight Costs can be assigned to a Delivery using which forms? (Choose two.)
A. Quick Ship
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B. Pick Release
C. Sales Orders
D. Shipping Exceptions
E. Shipping Transactions
Answer: AE
293. Select the two principal elements of the Pack functionality in Shipping Execution. (Choose two.)
A. Trip
B. Delivery
C. Trip Stop
D. Delivery Line
E. License Plate Number
Answer: DE
294. You are the warehouse manager for a distributor of electronics equipment. A customer service
representative wants you to expedite the shipping of order number 16428 for one of your very important
customers.
You go to Oracle Shipping execution to view the order status in the Shipping Transactions form. The
products requested on this order do not need any packinG.
View the Exhibit and choose the appropriate action.
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A. Go to Actions > Auto-Pack.
B. Go to Actions > Autocreate Trip.
C. Go to Actions > Assign To Deliveries.
D. Go to Actions > Launch Pick ReleasE.
E. Go to Actions > Unassign From Deliveries.
Answer: D
295. You have been told that new receipts of items have just been entered and you now have new
on-hand quantities for items.
You are trying to release the remaining lines on an order where some lines are in the Backordered,
Awaiting Shipping, Entered, and Closed status. You are using the Release Sales Orders online form to
accomplish this task. However, you cannot find your order 1000005.
Which value in the exhibit will you change to successfully release this specific order only to your
warehouse?
A. Select the Prior Reservation Only check box.
B. Specify the order type in the Order Type fielD.
C. Change the date value in the Schedule Date fielD.
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D. Change the drop-down value of the Orders field to All.
E. Change the drop-down value of the Orders field to BackordereD.
Answer: D
296. ABC Company has a customer with multiple sites that use the same material, which is made to
order.
A ground shipment is planned to site A for three skids of this material.
There is one trip and delivery number for this shipment of three skids that is ready to be Ship ConfirmeD.
The customer has requested last-minute changes to the shipment:
1. One skid to be shipped via air to site B to cover an unexpected shortage
2. One skid to be shipped via air to site C to cover an unexpected shortage
3. One skid to be shipped to its original destination of site A via ground transport
Which solution is the most efficient for solving the customers needs?
A. Cancel the order line, reenter new lines, and ship the lines.
B. Ship Confirm the order for site A and perform an RMA transaction to bring back the two skids that
need to be redirected to site B and site C.
C. Navigate to the Shipping Parameters window and change the delivery grouping attributes. Deselect
the Ship From location to allow this one delivery to ship to multiple sites.
D. Add two trip stops to the existing delivery for site A: one for the air shipment to site B and one for the
air shipment to site C. Unassign the material from site A that will need to be shipped to site B and site C,
and reassign as appropriatE.
Answer: A
297. Some ACME shipments are restricted to Friday to optimize freight.
Within the freight optimization process, shipping must prioritize customers’ deliveries.
Which is the best approach?
A. Use the manual trip creations and have the shipping department determine the sequence of deliveries
on the trip itselF.
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B. Use the Auto Create Trip functionality, and ship each delivery using the Ship Confirm process . Have
the shipping department arrange the paperwork in the order in which they would like each stop to be
madE.
C. Use the packing workbench to assign material to the correct container for shipment. Pack the material
in the order in which it should be delivereD.
D. Use the container-item relationships by creating a container for the refrigerated truck and assign
those items to the container that require refrigerated transport in the order in which they should be
delivereD.
Answer: A
298. What is true about the Ship from Stock fulfillment model?
A. Every order must be reserveD.
B. Every order can be Pick Released immediately after bookinG.
C. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity.
D. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order.
Answer: B
299. Which three activities are part of the shipping process in the Order to Cash cycle? (Choose threE. )
A. scheduling the order line
B. splitting sales order lines
C. allocating delivery to trips
D. decrementing inventory after Ship Confirm has happened
E. moving materials from the factory to the stocking warehouse
F. creating move orders to transfer the items to the shipping subinventory
Answer: CDF
300. Identify three features that are available in shipping execution when Oracle Transportation
Management is installeD. (Choose threE. )
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A. Load Tendering
B. Vehicle Dispatching
C. Freight Consolidation
D. Inbound Carrier Selection
E. Freight Payment and Audit
F. GPS-enabled truck routing
Answer: ADE
301. Identify two features that are available in shipping execution when Warehouse Management is
installeD. (Choose two.)
A. Bar Code
B. Plan Tasks
C. Pick Methodologies
D. Automatic Credit Holds
E. RFID (Radio-frequency identification)
Answer: BC
302. What happens if the user tries to increase the quantity on a Sales Order Line that is linked to a Ship
Confirmed Delivery?
A. The Sales Order Line will be placed on holD.
B. The system will automatically create a new Delivery line for the additional quantity.
C. The status of the corresponding Delivery lines will change to Open and the user will have to Ship
Confirm the Delivery again.
D. Changes to Shipped Confirmed or Closed Delivery lines are not alloweD. Instead a Sales Order
Line quantity increase creates a new Delivery linE.
Answer: D